Perhaps I’m being obtuse, but substituting “liberty” or “power of choice” for “authorities” doesn’t seem to make sense in the context of the scripture. I don’t want to waste your time, but perhaps you have a link to either something you’ve written before or an argument made by someone else that supports your position?
I’m open to your opinion, I just need a more convincing argument in order to accept it.
ἐξουσία, ἡ, (ἔξεστι) power, means, authority to do a thing, c. inf., χαίρειν καὶ νοσεῖν ἐξ. πάρεστι Soph. Fr. 109; ἐξ. ἐστί μοι, c. inf., Antipho. 112. 13, Thuc. 7. 12; ἐξουσίαν διδόναι, ποιεῖν to give authority or power to do …, Plat. Symp. 182 E, Crito 51 D, etc.; opp. to ἐξ. ἔχειν, λαμβάνειν, etc., Andoc. 23. 14, Xen. Mem. 2. 6, 24, etc.; τῇ τῆς εἰρήνης ἐξ. with the freedom permitted by peace, Dem. 240. 23; ἐξ. ἔχειν θανάτου power of life and death, Arist. Fr. 374; but, c. gen. objecti, ἐξ. τινός power over, licence in a thing, τοῦ λέγειν Plat. Gorg. 461 E; ἐν μεγάλῃ ἐξ. τοῦ ἀδικεῖν Ib. 526 A, cf. Rep. 554 C; περί τινος Id. Legg. 936 A; κατὰ τὴν οὐκ ἐξ. τῆς ἀγωνίσεως from want of qualification for …, Thuc. 5. 50. 2.licence, arrogance, Dem. 559. 24, cf. 403. 26; ἡ ἄγαν ἐξ. Id. 428. 22. II. absol. power, authority, might, as opp. to right, Eur. Fr. 778, Thuc. 1. 38, cf. 3. 45. 2.an office, magistracy, Lat. postestas, Plat. Alc. 1. 135 B; οἱ ἐν ταῖς ἐξουσίαις in Arist. Eth. N. 1. 5, 3; οἱ ἐν ἐξουσίᾳ ὄντες Id. Rhet. 2. 6. 9; οἱ ἐπ’ ἐξουσιῶν Lxx (Dan. 3. 2); ἡ ὑπατικὴ ἐξ. the consulate, Diod. 14. 113, etc.; ἡ ταμιευτικὴ ἐξ. the quaestorship, Dion. H. 8. 77; ἡ τοῦ θαλάμου ἐξ., in the Roman empire, lordship of the bedchamber, Hdn. 1. 12. 3. as concrete, also like Lat. potestas, the body of the magistrates, Dion. H. II. 32; αἱ ἐξ. (as we say) the authorities, Plut. Philop. 17, and often in N. T.; cf. τέλος. III. like περιουσία, abundance of means, resources, ἐξουσίας ἐπίδειξις Thuc. 6. 31, cf. I. 123; ἐνδεεστέρως ἢ πρὸς τὴν ἐξ. Id. 4. 39; τῶν ἀναγκαίων ἐξ. Plat. Legg. 828 D. IV.pomp, Plut. Aemil. 34.
In all actuality, it’s impossible for us, as humans, to comprehend the Scripture; only the Holy Spirit can instruct us as to its meaning..that goes for you, myself, and everyone else.
I’m not a christian or religious but I can answer from a place of logic.
Surely the commandment against theft comes before this passage.
this passage came from Paul not Jeus so is not authoritive in the same way jesus’s sayings are.
Elsewhere it’s written jesus said “my Kingdom is not of this world”. Also remember that satan offered Jesus his kingdoms in this world implying he controls them.