Autolykos “It seems that you’re defining “criminal disputes” as “disputes in which the losing party is punished by violence, imprisonment, or both”. If so, then I’d say that, in all likelihood, there would be no criminal disputes in a free-market society. The “punishments” for all disputes would be restitution payments. In other words, there would be no crimes, only torts. Does this make sense?”
I guess my definition is a little fuzzy. When I said criminal disputes I had in mind things like murder, rape and armed robbery vs contractual type disputes where there is no violence. So maybe “disputes involving violence” is a better way to say it?