Does it make sense that human morality would be a matter of rigorous deduction?

Yes, but that would run counter to the traditional “morality-via-reason” natural rights conception.

But moral behavior doesn’t necessarily arise out of an ethical theory, just as economic behavior doesn’t necessarily arise out of an economic theory.

Actually… [:P]

(from Wittgenstein, Austrian Economics, and the Logic of Action)

Shhhh I wanted to lead them into a trap! See if anyone was capable of deducing what Long stated. [:P]

Lilburne, thanks for your reply - everything made sense and I basically agree, so I have nothing to directly respond to.

However, if you agree that morality for others is essentially a persuasion technique (unless it is purely consequentialist), don’t most of the points being debated here regarding logic become moot?

Yes.

Juan, in another thread, you just had this exchange with Spidey.

Why challenge it, Juan? Does the notion disgust you? But morality has nothing to do with an inner sense of right and wrong, right? If that’s the conclusion the moral syllogism arrives at, you’re bound to it, aren’t you?

I’m not only challenging him. I’m challenging him by rational means. I asked for a reason, not for information about his feelings.

I think torture is wrong … both intuition and reason tell me so.

Not quite right. I never dismissed moral sense completely. I pointed out its limitations - limitations which you seem to be ignoring.

I’m bound by logic, yes. But notice that I already said that there’s no way to logically prove that A has authority over B, which in this case translates to “parents have no authority to torture ‘their’ children”.

I don’t think there’s a conflict between sound reasoning and morals.

Wow, you actually tried to meaningfully address my points; I must have struck a chord. Since you posted a bit more like me, I’ll respond “Juan-style”…

How can you challenge rationally when you’re rationally challenged ? …

Maybe you should admit your hybrid moral philosophy is self contradictory trash ?

Your nonsense it is boring …

Sorry I don’t understand ? Maybe because you don’t make sense ?

Let’s see: flip answers, thoughtless insults, oddly placed spacing and punctuation, bizarre phrasing, declarative statements with question marks… Did I miss anything?

lol. Kick and scream all you want Lilburne. The flaws in your position won’t go away, though.

He has you exact, Juan.

I don’t think so Stephen.

Can you explain this? I’m pretty sure it’s possible to derive specific cases from general cases without deriving general cases from specific cases.

I think you forgot to put the question mark at the end of your sentence?

Does that answer the question? I’m not sure if this is a direct enough explaination. Only rational agents are able to argue over moral propositions. And only rational agents capable of forming proper syllogisms. So while there is a connection between the two, it is not necessary to be able to form proper syllogisms to be moral and not necessary to be moral to be able to form proper syllogisms.

To: Stephen Forde

http://mises.org/journals/scholar/long.pdf

I’m glad that Womb posted this link.

Here is a shorter article:

http://praxeology.net/antipsych.pdf

Thanx, I will read this and get back to you. Probably not until later on though as I have many things to do today, and only the short article. In the meantime, could you edit your post so that the quote is from professor Hoppe instead of me? Or perhaps at least double quote so that it is me quoting Hoppe?

Deduction is inferential. Without premises from which conclusions are to be inferred, it doesn’t factor in. Premises are inductively formed. Classical induction is what you have in mind here.

But implicit in Hoppe’s argumentation ethics is the notion that being fully moral involves abiding by the conclusions of argumentation ethics which are reached by deduction. If people don’t perform Hoppe’s deductions, but act in accord with Hoppe’s conclusions anyway, then they would only be acting morally by accident. Again, in Hoppe’s system as well as in Rothbard’s, it seems that to be a fully moral being necessarily involves rigorous deduction. And such a formulation of morality just seems to be a contrived product of wordplay.

I feel Hoppe’s argumentation ethics also fails to derive “ought” from “is”, but that matter is for another thread.

What about premises that are negatively demonstrable? They are not inductively (I’m not sure if we mean the same thing by inductively) formed. Also, empirical induction can only provide hypothetical truths, not necessary truths.

Also, I was more interested in a response from wilderness, since he thinks I don’t know anything about epistemology and accused me of ‘fronting’.