Domino effect of failing banks, role of inflation, and critique of Austrian economics

Thanks, the links are very good. The more of them I read, the greater the chance that something will “click” in my head.

I was reading Mises’s Human Action excerpt that you provided. I have a question about this passage:

The main deficiency of all attempts to explain the boom — viz., the general tendency to expand production and of all prices to rise — without reference to changes in the supply of money or fiduciary media, is to be seen in the fact that they disregard this circumstance. A general rise in prices can only occur if there is either a drop in the supply of all commodities or an increase in the supply of money (in the broader sense).

Let us, for the sake of argument, admit for the moment that the statements of these nonmonetary explanations of the boom and the trade cycle are correct. Prices advance and business activities expand although no increase in the supply of money has occurred. Then very soon a tendency toward a drop in prices must arise, the demand for loans must increase, the gross market rates of interest must rise, and the short-lived boom comes to an end.

In fact, every nonmonetary trade-cycle doctrine tacitly assumes — or ought logically to assume — that credit expansion is an attendant phenomenon of the boom. It cannot help admitting that in the absence of such a credit expansion no boom could emerge and that the increase in the supply of money (in the broader sense) is a necessary condition of the general upward movement of prices. Thus on close inspection the statements of the nonmonetary explanations of cyclical fluctuations shrink to the assertion that credit expansion, while an indispensable requisite of the boom, is in itself alone not sufficient to bring it about and that some further conditions are required for its appearance.

Yet, even in this restricted sense, the teachings of the nonmonetary doctrines are vain. It is evident that every expansion of credit must bring about the boom as described above. The boom-creating tendency of credit expansion can fail to come only if another factor simultaneously counterbalances its growth.

If, for instance, while the banks expand credit, it is expected that the government will completely tax away the businessmen’s “excess” profits or that it will stop the further progress of credit expansion as soon as “pump-priming” will have resulted in rising prices, no boom can develop. The entrepreneurs will abstain from expanding their ventures with the aid of the cheap credits offered by the banks because they cannot expect to increase their gains. It is necessary to mention this fact because it explains the failure of the New Deal’s pump-priming measures and other events of the 'thirties.

The boom can last only as long as the credit expansion progresses at an ever-accelerated pace. The boom comes to an end as soon as additional quantities of fiduciary media are no longer thrown upon the loan market. But it could not last forever even if inflation and credit expansion were to go on endlessly. It would then encounter the barriers which prevent the boundless expansion of circulation credit. It would lead to the crack-up boom and the breakdown of the whole monetary system.

I have a question regarding this. Mises seems to be arguing very forcefully that no boom can happen without an expansion of monetary supply. But doesn’t this bit apply to every expansion of economy, even not during the “boom” phase, but also during regular, gradual growth of the economy? I know empirically this is not the case (since US economy grew during 19th century, etc.), but why doesn’t this bit —

Let us, for the sake of argument, admit for the moment that the statements of these nonmonetary explanations of the boom and the trade cycle are correct. Prices advance and business activities expand although no increase in the supply of money has occurred. Then very soon a tendency toward a drop in prices must arise, the demand for loans must increase, the gross market rates of interest must rise, and the short-lived boom comes to an end.

— not apply to regular growth of economy? Why does this mechanism not stifle any growth?

It really all depends on how you define “growth”. What Mises is talking about when he says “boom” is what he describes there in the passage…basically that “prices advance and business activities expand”. This is not the same as economic growth. You will have those who will argue that growth occurs when GDP increases or something like that.

They’ll try to argue “oh yeah, well how do you measure economic growth then?” But of course, if all you have to do to create “economic growth” is make GDP increase, there’s no reason growth shouldn’t be happening all the time. 140 Trillion dollars could be created and spent literally in seconds and our $14 Trillion GDP would increase tenfold. WHY THE HELL DON’T WE DO THAT? What’s all the waiting for? GDP is meaningless.

Generally when people talk about “economic growth” they are referring to an increase in the supply of goods and services to a point at which more people can obtain more things they desire at a lower cost. They’re talking about an improvement in the overall standard of living of individuals in the society. They’re talking about an increase in overall wealth. The number of units of currency in circulation tells us absolutely nothing about that. And certainly just increasing that number doesn’t do anything to improve those things.

So to get to your question, no actual “economic growth” as defined above does not have the same affect as an increase in the money supply…as, namely, it doesn’t really increase the money supply. Suppose gold and silver are universally used as money and no fiduciary media are used. As economic growth occurs, the supply of virtually all commodities increases…this bringing prices down…meaning everyone is wealthier. Sure, as technology advances and prices keep dropping (meaning each gold or silver coin becomes more valuable…that is, they increase in purchasing power…meaning they buy more stuff) it will pay people to mine more gold and silver, thus ultimately increasing the supply.

But for one thing, this doesn’t come at a cost. It takes real resources to mine those metals. It’s not easy. And it’s not quick. This means (1) the supply can’t increase very quickly, and (2) each new bit of gold or silver that is in circulation represents actual economic resources. This is contrasted with a $100 bill. Everyone knows there isn’t $100 worth of ink and paper in that bill. It’s just a representation. The problem is, it doesn’t “represent” anything other than “faith and credit”. There aren’t any resources to back it, because it didn’t really take any resources to bring it into existence.

It’s just like I told you with the island economy analogy.

So the bottom line answer to your question is, no, the artificial boom doesn’t apply to a normal growing economy because for one thing, a normal growing economy doesn’t grow the money supply, it grows the supply of everything else (in the broader sense). The artificial boom economy does exactly the opposite. That’s why it’s called artificial…because there isn’t any real growth there…it just appears to be. It’s not the economy of resources that has grown…only the money supply that is supposed to represent those resources.

That’s why printing money out of thin air throws everything off…because it fools the market into behaving as if there are more resources available than there really are.

A few more that might help:

Malinvestment, Not Overinvestment, Causes Booms
(If you want more on this one, there’s this too.)

Mises on malinvestment (from Epistemological Problems of Economics)

Just for archive’s sake, a couple of threads. (Might not be really helpful, but still, on topic)

Pure Time Preference Theory of Interest?

Interest rate theory, time or liquidity preference

Came across this and figured it should go here, as it addresses the “inflation has been pretty tame” claim:

LV Sun: Gold Standard is Dangerous

And here’s one that covers the popular nonsense about targeting “0% inflation”:

Zero Percent Inflation is Still a Tax and Wealth-Destroying