“How does no private property imply no exchange?”
What a ridiculous question. I guess it’s too much to ask today’s socialists to understand the position they’re defending. You do understand that communist systems have no exchange, and therefore no markets, right? Where there’s exchange, there are markets. When everything is publicly owned, there can be no exchange; there is only distribution (which implies some sort of centralization, by definition).
“How does abolishing the private ownership over the means of productions (the factory, the farms, machinary etc) abolish exchange?”
The means of production include all fixed capital equipment, durable goods, intermediary goods (examples; sugar, tin, rubber, ect), land, ect. Everything but human beings are publicly owned (in theory).
“Did exchange not exist in the USSR?”
Lenin attempted to eliminate all private property and exchange. The result? Millions starved, the cities became ghost towns, and the masses fled into the wilderness in order to hunt wild game. There was a complete systemic collapse. In response, Lenin implemented his “reforms;” that is, he allowed farmers to own some property, keep some of their productions, and engage in heavily regulated exchange. The Soviet state retained control over the heavy industries (steel, railroads, coal, oil, ect), the “commanding heights.” Once communism was exposed as an impossible condition, a fraud, it became fascism.
“Without private property, there can be no exchange between private individuals who compose 1% of the population but own all the institutes of life.”
Of course. The 1% (government officials) doesn’t need to trade, it just takes.