Marxism and the workers

Good thing I never claimed that I believed in “pure” private property then.

You either own something or you don’t.

So why make assumptions about my beliefs if I don’t seem to be this typical “propertarian”?

I will address this later because you have contradicted yourself on this. I will address this in the response to your other post.

Ok.

Not really. If we go by the definition you provided: “Legitimized (through court or custom) possession and control”, then yes, anyone who wants to have property can have it. Even the homeless have clothing. Many of them even have other possessions that they keep close to them. So, exactly who do you know who wants property but is not able to have it?

Actually the definition you have provided is pretty similar to what people use around here. Baseless accusation to say otherwise. Semantics are important. If we don’t know what we are saying, how can we converse?

My statement was not in response to this question. It was a response to your fallacious claim that customary law will protect property owners instead people who don’t own property (I have yet to meet one). My point was that anyone who wants property can have it.

  1. Not just talking about Pilgrims, and I don’t feel like searching the Mises Dailies.

  2. This is factually incorrect, as addressed in the article.

Okay. Now prove it. At best, neither of us can prove it one way or the other. So there is no point in continuing this part of the discussion. Either claim is baseless.

I don’t care to research modern hunter gatherers right now. Someone has to eat first. It’s highly unlikely that each and every time an animal is hunted that they will all eat at the exact same time. Even without research I find this to be illogical. Also, you cannot prove one way or the other about prehistoric human societies. So, it’s a baseless claim if it was referring to them.

What little kids do is go to their parents or the other in charge and tell on each other. The parents then sort it out. That or the kid hits the other. Often one kid even gets a time-out! No need to involve courts.

So what? People claim things as their own, rightly or wrongly. This is not my definition of private property. However, if I remember correctly, Rothbard would refer to the thief’s possession and control as “unjust property”. So I don’t see why it must necessarily be the case that what the thief acquires is not his property - it’s just not his legitimate property. I don’t think I would call the unjust property the thief’s property, but whatever. That’s Rothbard, and that’s how he defines it. This is why semantics are important.

I’ll address this later in the post.

Ditto.

You would die if you actually did this. Notice how I said each and every time? You would starve to death if you praticed what you preached. I mean, if you are okay with that, then fine. To each his own.

Neither were you, so you cannot prove this either.

Care to elaborate?

I get that. I’m just trying to figure out where you are going with this. Perhaps it was just an observation you wished to share? There’s nothing wrong with that, I just can’t figure out if there is anything else to it.

I don’t think human nature arguments are necessarily irrelevant. They certainly don’t solve the is-ought problem, but they can be entirely relevant.

This is not what happened. As I just stated, my response was to a statement you made: “Ok. Now show me one small tract of habitable land that can be traced from its original homesteaders to its current owner through abandonement or trade, without any kind of violent appropriation. You can’t.” It was not a response to “all property is illegitimate by this metric”. Scroll back and read the conversation. This is what happened. In fact, my actual response to you was "If something has been abandoned, there is no need to trace it to the original homesteader. " But we’ve already gone through all this. How does my response answer nothing?

You don’t have to specifically quote each and every sentence of mine. But when you misrepresent my argument becauseyou have not quoted what I said in full, then I take issue with it.

That was actually an exact quote of you. The entire quote was “Yes so show me a small tract of habitable land… non-murder death… bla bla bla…” So are you just making stuff up about me now? Claiming that I make stuff up about you? As you said, this is a common trait amongst trolls…

Governments are made up of people. Socio-economic classes are not persons.

Really? You never even tried to explain it the first or second times. It was just “For the glory of etc etc etc”. What am I supposed to take away from such a statement?

Why does it matter what the reason is? You don’t own it. You said so yourself. If you really believed this, you would soon be without computers. Out of curiosity, if your home was broken into and burgled, would you report the “crime” to the police?

This still does not disprove my point. The second person can be the initiator of violence. It does not necessarily have to be the original appropriater. And I don’t dispute that law, and therefore property, require violence or the threat thereof.

See above.

Economic power as you define it and violent power are not similar. By your definition, violent power is a subcategory of economic power. Last I checked, neither of my hands were subcategories of the other.

No. It’s relevant. I believe that what you wish to accomplish is thievery. You’ve already admitted to Autolykos that you want some power. Personal attack? Sure. Made up personal attack? Absolutely not.

Aggression is the initiation of violence or the initiation of the threat of violence. It’s actually one of the dictionary definitions of the term. Not just an NAP libertarian definition.

Now I get to make accusations against you! Are you seriously telling me that you’ve never heard someone say “Johnny is so aggressive when he debates”? Or “Johnny talks so aggressively”? Really?

Perhaps you are now understanding why I ask you for so many definitions? I try to avoid the confusion entirely by asking exactly what you mean by the words you use.

You are misconstruing my argument here. This was the actual exchange:

Me: Property arises from the peaceful resolution of disputes.

You: Not really, dispute resolution arises from the peaceful resolution of disputes, whether it has to do with property or not.

Me: False. Property is a legal status. Legal status arises from dispute resolution. Thus, property arises from dispute resolution.

You: All iron is a chemical status. All chemical statuses arise in stars. Thus, all chemicals arise from stars.

Perhaps you can see it now? You twice tried to refute my claim that property arises from dispute resolution. Now you are claiming that it was you all along that was claiming property arises from dispute resolution. Well, that is NOT what happened in our little exchange. So, either you twice misread what I wrote and twice accidentally tried to prove that property does not arise from dispute resolution, or you are trolling me here. You can keep trying to falsely accuse me all you want, but I will take the time (sadly) to go through and reread our exchanges and repost what happened.

The definition of “really” according to wiktionary is “Actually; in fact; in reality.” “Not really” would then mean “Not in fact, or not actually, or not in reality”. So, I guess it’s time to add the word “really” to our list of words and phrases you use differently from everyone else.

I mentioned earlier in this thread his posts What Law Is and A Praxeological Account of Law.

The second person can start the violence.

Ditto.

EDIT: I’ll respond to your other post to me another time. It’s a lot of work to post in this thread.