Also Gordon says that methodological individualism stems from Aristotle. But he also says that Mises was not influenced by Aristotle. That doesn’t seem to follow since, in Human Action, Mises explicitly promotes methodological individualism. Also the entire teleological approach of praxeology seems eminently Aristotelean.
Can someone resolve these cognitive dissonances for me?
but ideas around methodological individualism also occurred in Locke and Bentham, and many others. Schumpeter appears to have introduced the term itself, and since appr. the 1930s Austrians like Hayek, Machlup, and Mises started to use the term to apply to their own methodology (Schumpeter’s use of the term was a bit different) Just sayin’ that the influence need not have occured directly or even indirectly from Aristotle.
Check “Meanings of Methodological Individualism” by Hodgson (the above paragraph is based on that article)