Evidence that indians in my country had no private property:
http://www.jstor.org/pss/3513473
You will find other searching : <“no private property” indians brazil> in google.
About the gentilis people, I guess they had another name, I will ask my history teacher more details about them this weak, when I’ll see him.
Ok, from the evidence I presented you, my country indians (nearly ALL tribes) had originally (naturaly) no private property. That society is one of the MOST primitive in the world, one of the MOST natural, THEREFORE the one that will best represent the natural rights. Bsed on the FACT that they were NATURAL and had NO PROPERTY, then property is not natural, it was either created by social agreement or created by force.
What do you understand by monopoly? Monopoly over something is what happen when all private property over this thing, lies in the same hands. So rockefeller made it accumulating nearly all private property over the oil industry without “physical coercion”, in a almost perfectely free market. The laws that regulated teh market later would make such tendency towards monopoly harder. The only part of the monopoly that requires physical coercion is property itself, but once you defend it, you will probably denny it.
Either way, take a look at the state deffinition (Max Weber) “the state is the institution that has monopoly over the legitimate uses of force and violence” where legitimate is following the social law, not the natural one. In a natural society there is no state because there is no property. The state exists to defend property as I had said back at the beggining.
If you hire a company, you grant it monopoly over the legitimate uses of force and violence over a certain area, your property. If it is legitimate according to the social laws of your system, that company will be your PRIVATE state, far worse than a public one. Property is not a natural law, a natural right, it is an artificial right, to assure this artificial right the state appears.
The origin of property and state can either be social agreement OR force (physical coercion), when property is made by physical coercion, so is the state, if property is made by social agreement, so is the state. Neither of them is a natural right, but not all states (including the police) are made by physical coercion. Monopoly isn’t necessairlly a result of physical coercion.
As I showed on the evidence, natural societies have NO property, property isn’t therefore an extension of one’s will, unless you admit this extension’s existence requires the previous establishment of property (in this case the existence of property would require the previous existence of property, but once at the begining the was no property, this property right was created, is artifical as its feedback). Property is not natural, so natural things CAN"T be property, and your will is a natural thing, its extensions are not property. Property refers to material rights over things you can exchange for material rights over other things. Can you exchange your will? As Proudhon conclude “property IS theft”, and indeed, property requires physical coercion to be maintained and physical coercion to be destroyed.
Plato’s cave has the same idea of Shakespeare world inside a nutshell, from wich I developed that idea about property, such idea also is defended by Rousseau:
"the true founder of the civil society was the firsth that, grabbing a piece of land, made it saing “this is mine”, and found people fool enougth to belive him. How many crimes, wars, muders, mizeries and horrors wouldn’t have prevented humanity the one that, taking back the land, said “Don’t listen to this lier; you’ll be doomed should your forget that the fruits belong to all, and land belongs to none!” Jean Jacques Rousseau
I agree with Rousseau, property IS NOT natural as my EVIDENCE on the indians of my country proves. Either way, I’d like to know what is my abstraction on Shakespeare timeless poerty?