If his premise was that simple, then why does he defend the aristocracy so often (twice in just that short passage Olly posted). Is this a fluke, or does this occur often in the book?
If you read the book, then it doesn’t look like he is defending the aristocracy the way you are interpreting it. You are not ONLY quoting passages, you are also interpreting them with your own words below the quotes you are providing.
Speaking of contrived… I like how he tailors a very small quote for his hyperbole, then disagrees with the analysis. [;)]
Hoppe makes it clear that he is not a monarchist. He shows some positives of monarchy contra democratic republics. I really don’t feel like wasting my time on “critics” who haven’t even read what they want to swipe at.
That democracy has flaws? Sure I agree with that. That feudalism is better, well I guess that depends whether you were a baron or a serf.
With some strange passages eluding to a romanticizing of “noble families”, which I find a bit suspect.
You’ve read it, right? Slap on a quick passage were he adds the non-feudalist caveat you have asserted he has. That’s all it would take to put me away.
i hope everybody just ignores jackson for now on in this thread. his questions and comments are so far off the mark on anything worthwhile but hey he’s read the book right?
I think the concept of a ‘natural elite’ is specious. Natural specialists, sure - some people, for whatever reason, are just going to be better at certain things. Some people may be better at many things than most people. Nonetheless the concept of an ‘elite’ is derived from a tribal hierarchy, not a liberal society. People who own more property will become less influential with the withering of the state, though of course they will have more control over their own property. The increase in technology, average wealth and a more equalitarian distribution of opportunities and options will ensure that people will become more independent and ever more capable of ‘finding their level’ by choosing an environment which suits their tastes, rather than conforming to the ‘norms’ of the Polis.
I don’t think Hoppe considers feudalism a type of “statism”. I suppose that’s how he can maintain an affinity towards the aristocracy whilst having a dislike for absolute monarchy, and complete disdain for democratic republics. I find this premise a bit odd. Thoughts?
If by ‘state’ one means the public sovereign state which ‘represents’ the ‘people’ and who has authority to make unilateral decisions binding upon others, then feudalism is not a state. Nor, for that matter, are most of the political organizations in history. The modern state is inherently totalitarian and has many conceptual and practical differences from historical political organizations, however there are many factors which are quite the same and if feudalism is not a state it is nonetheless a violent, oppressive political organization based largely upon ignorance and terrorism.
during feudalism there were taxes. if there was oppression in terms of liberty being violated, then yes, it is a state. state/gov’t=criminal organization, big or small. some are weaker than others, but that’s neither here nor there.
Then neither would be an absolute monarchy (I think that’s what you imply later in your post). I am finding it hard to envision a concrete delineation where A is a state, and B is not. Is there a minimum amount of geographic territory one must claim (and enforce successfully) sovereignty over to be considered “a state”?