Either your economics class is more full of shit that usual and didn’t even get it’s own Keynesian nonsense right, or you misunderstood. Again, read the definition of “money multiplier” (which was already provided to you twice before.)
Did I not just tell you (twice) that the “investment multiplier” is what Keynes talked about? It’s literally on the first page of “The Multiplier” chapter of the first resource recommended to you in the last thread.
Good. That’s the point. That’s the answer to your question.
I’ve never heard of anyone who denies this. I don’t know where anyone would get the idea that anyone believed that money doesn’t get exchanged. That has to be the most asinine thing I’ve ever heard. If you have an example of anyone suggesting such a thing, please point me in their direction.
See above. What the heck did you think Austrians (or anyone else) would believe? I can’t even fathom what else is essentially possible, let alone plausible. Honestly, what did you have in mind?
Serously? One more time. Have you looked at all into the resources that were suggested to you in the first thread? In particular, the first one in the first response of that thread? The first three recommended pages? Or that whole chapter, really. (Not to mention the entire two chapters prior to it, titled “the propensity to consume”.)
If you understand what’s wrong with the multiplier, I don’t quite see how you cannot understand what’s wrong with the “marginal propensity to consume”.
There is never any fixed, predictable “multiplier”; there is never any precise, predeterminable, or mechanical relationship between social income, consumption, investment, and extent of employment.
Please look into the resources that have been suggested to you.