“The identity axiom is a fact, the non-aggression axiom is a fact, and it does not seem like I should have to prove either”
Can you do me a favor, will you step into an unbiased observer’s shoes for a moment? What would you do if you saw someone in an argument harping on about the fact that they’re right because what they believe is “axiomatic”? Non agression is not self evident in any way. The identity axiom is obviously true a priori, man cannot concieve of a world in which it is not true, however, man can certainly concieve of a world in which agression is not wrong, whatever ‘wrong’ actually means.
If you met a socialist who claimed that altruism was axiomatically true and just kept stating that it was axiomatic and wouldn’t even consider that it could be wrong then what would you say to him? What would you think of him? Becuase this method is not mature, it’s not scientific, it’s not reasonable it’s dogmatic in every way imaginable. It would seem as though according to your method his reasoning would be perfectly acceptable, he just happens to adopt the wrong self evident truth that doesn’t need to be proved…
“As an individualist, I don’t really care what anyone thinks besides myself, save for Rothbard.”
Step back and read this statement for a moment. RD, you are NOT a stupid person and you’re too good for dogmatism, please stop this insanity.
“I agree that your statement on stealing is objective. But it is not universal, seeing that it violates the NAA.”
Let’s see, Oxford Dictionary defines universal as:
'of, affecting, or done by all people or things in the world or in a particular group; applicable to all cases:
universal adult suffrage’
The non agression axiom is nowhere to be found in this definition by the most trusted dictionary on earth, therefore because my ethic cast its judgement over all men, it is indeed universal.
Now please tell me this. What are the chances of what you’re saying being true? Rothbard was a man who became infatuated with the teachings of Ludwig Von Mises, a radical advocate of laissez-faire, and then spent a long economic career in which he agreed with almost every single sentence that Mises ever uttered except those which could even possibly give an excuse for government intervention such as his views in monopoly price (constituting the worst and most blatantly BS chapter of MES) and classical liberalism/utilitarianism. Now what are the chances that this ECONOMIST who ALREADY believed that a free market economy was optimal and was obviously looking to expand his arguments in favor of the market would suddenly stumble upon an AXIOM, something that need not be justified, something that is SELF EVIDENT, which happened to justify EVERYTHING HE ALREADY BELIEVED? What are the chances that an economist would discover an axiom and the on “‘true’ ‘morality’” (whatever the hell that actually means)??? Not the thousands of philosophers who went before Rothbard, or who have come since, who would appear to have less of a reason for biased opinions from the get go, no, it was a single free market economist who discovered something that was, once again, SELF EVIDENT, and furthermore something which, to my knowledge 99% of all philosophers since have disagreed upon.
Please read this and tell me how exactly you can go on believing this.