I’m afraid you got that backwards. When the Fed sets “interest rates” it doesn’t stop banks from dealing in any interest rates they like. It is like me proclaiming every morning at 8 am, the “price” of gold form my balcony: no one would give a damn.
What the Fed really means by “we’re cutting the interest rate by such percent” is that they’re cutting the interest rate on the loans they make to banks out of newly-created money. And the influx of this newly-created money lowers interest rates in the economy. So, its inflation that lowers interest rates, not at all the opposite.
True, as I mentioned in my previous post. When people wrongly believe inflation/deflation will ensue, yet no inflation/deflation really happens, the very exalt analysis presented by Bearing applies.
Yet you must see that the market cannot be wrong for too long. After a month of dealing in “expected” interest rates, people would see that there really is no inflation, and rates would go back to normal. The amount of malinvestment promoted by wrong expectations per se cannot be counted at all, that small it is. The Fed can fool the market only if it keeps expanding the supply of money at an exponential rate, always assuring that real inflation is higher than excepted inflation. Well, at least until people begin to except exponential inflation (yes I know, that sounds stupid), in which case we have hyperinflation.
But we must see that “wrong expectations” can never cause a business cycle or malinvestment. At the very least, they have nothing to do with the ABCT.
That is true, the market cannot fully adjust to the negative effects of continuous taxation, but it can well deal, given some time of course, with the effects of taxation after it recedes.
The vary same applies to deflation: the market cannot adjust to the malinvestments caused by continued deflation, but it can, given time, adjust to those caused by deflation after it stops for good.
And that’s the whole point: we are here forced (unrealistically, to be sure) to choose between two sets of measures, each having negative effects. They’ll both be one-time, the market will adjust to both and still both will entail a net loss. There is no way to tell which way is the best. It’s a judgment call. I myself “feel” that spending and causing that kind of malinvestment is a sounder approach, but I surely cannot ‘provee’ it to you. eevryone must make up his own mind on this: praxeology must remain silent.