the 1st one (20’s) was the result of a bursting bubble (FED printed to finance WW1)
Every recession is the result of a bursting bubble, and every bubble is the result of an increase in the money supply. Rothbard’s book spells out where and how the increase happened leading up to the Great Depression. So this distinction is non existent.
and the 2nd one (30’s) was a ‘balance sheet’ depression.
Ask him why a balance sheet depression is different. Why does it need govt intervention when a “standard” depression doesn’t? Ask him if Keynes or anyone who advocated govt intervention ever made this distinction before 1999. If not, where they all in the wrong? What did they think was the difference between the 20’s and the 30’s depressions?
At any rate, from wikipedia on balance sheet recession, it looks like their theory goes like this.
When there is a “normal” recession. the solution is for the govt to lower interest rates artificially [=printing money] and giving it to the banks, who will lend it to businesses, who will use the money to hire people, ending the recession.
But in a balance sheet recession, the big businesses and banks lost so much money that they need tons of cash just to pay off their debts. [Their balance sheets are imbalanced, meaning in the red, hence the name “balance sheet recession”.] So they will use the new money to pay their debts, not to hire people. So the only solution is for the govt to take over the economy a further step. The govt should not just print the money, they should spend it as well. This will definately end unemployment, the thinking is.
[What will happen to those poor indebted businesses and banks remains unclear. Will they get their free money on top of all the money the govt will spend on its own? If yes, why not just give them enough to pay all their debts, plus to invest, instead of the govt spending it. If no, is the plan for them all to go bankrupt? Is that how Koo explains what happened in Japan? Everyone went bankrupt, but the country was saved?]
Obviously, this whole theory of Koo’s [see wikipedia] only explains why the “usual” govt tricks dont work in a balance sheet recession. But it doesnt explain why nothing at all needed to be done by the govt or anyone in the 20’s. Or is he saying the only recession that we need any govt interference to solve is a balance sheet recession? Is he saying the lowering of interest rates is never needed or useful [in regular recessions not needed, in balance sheet ones not useful], but only direct govt hiring of guys to dig ditches is needed and useful?
As for the flaws in the proposed solutions, lowering interest rates and direct govt hiring, the standard AE books explain this. The key is, where does the govt get its money, and what happens to the people the govt takes it from?
Will I find the answer to my question in it? If not, could you please recommend me some books ?
Thing is, “balance sheet recession” is a pretty new phrase being tossed around. It may be hard to find it in Austrian [or any] books, unless they ar epretty recent. So you may find the answer in Rothbard indirectly, but he won’t spell it out.