Suppose there’s a “Society” and a “State” and suppose that this State does only one thing to that Society: it redistributes people’s income.
It takes half of everyone’s income and divide it equally between everyone.
So in the end each individual keeps half of what he makes, and also gets back from government half of the average income earned in that Society.
Suppose the bureacratic costs of enforcing this scheme are neggligeable as the number of actual bureacrats.
There are no parties and no political activity.
And suppose all industries are privately owned and operated with no intervention by the government, in a free market.
That is, everything happens just like in the anarcho-capitalism, except for this arbitrary 50% income tax which pools the earnings and then share them.
Let’s say that neither the people nor the bureaucrats are too much corrupt, and that there’s little fraud.
Maybe because the tax scheme is simple and easy to survey by the press, it doesn’t matter.
So, the question is: how big is the “government” with respect to the “national income”?
Is it 50%, like the total sum of taxation?
Or is it negligeable, like the actual costs of bureacrats?
Or is it something else?
Or does the question makes no sense?