I understand that the constitution implies we have the right to education.
I know this because the ninth amendment limits the power of the federal government to what and ONLY WHAT is expressed in the constitution, correct?
In other words, the purpose of the Constitution was not to give people rights but instead to bring a federal government into existence – a government with very limited powers. Therefore, it makes no sense to look for a right in the Constitution. A common misconception among the American people is that their rights come from the Constitution.
So, we have the right to an education. The government, by forcing its citizens to fund a public (government controlled) school, is a violation of our right to use our resources as we see fit for education.
So, would you consider this a violation of “Our Right to An Education”?
Or a “violation of private property”? Government taking resources from its citizens to fund a government controlled school.
Or both?
Part 2
Also, I assume anything the federal government does that is not specifically authorized in the constitution, is a violation of the constitution?
Like provide government schools, medicaid, medicare, social security, etc, etc, etc?
But, can a state’s constitution provide things, not mentioned in the constitution?
Like government controlled schools?
If the state did that (which they do), would that not violate our right to an education?