Austrians, what is "utility" exactly?

From an Austrian perspective, can someone explain–in a detailed fashion–what the term “utility” actually denotes? I know that Austrians recognize its existence (and believe it can be ranked ordinally), but I am not certain how it is defined by Austrian economics.

StrangeLoop:

I’ll attempt an answer from a Misesian-influenced perspective:

The “utility” of some object, process, or event (X), is this object, process, or event, viewed by individual actor (A) as a means toward some goal or end (Y).

When or if X is viewed by A as a means toward Y, then X has “utility” for A. X can be “utilized” (as A believes) as a means of bringing about Y.

Mises considered himself an advanced “utilitarian” in the above sense of the term. He held that the only meaningful standard of conduct and action is whether or not the means utilized are fit to bring about the end aimed at.

As for the ordinal ranking of utility, I believe it is important to clarify that in the Misesian interpretation, the ranking is done only through action. Thus, in an important sense, regarding the means chosen by A, there is only one rank that is ever established by A: rank #1 (in which case numbers aren’t necessary or instructive)

In Mises’s conception, an assumed numerical scale of ranks going above 1 (rank 1, rank 2, rank 3, etc.) is considered only an immaterial tool of thought.

But we can also express this differently, and conceive that if A constructs a numerical scale of values or ranks (1, 2, 3., …) he does so as a means toward some end, and as he does so, he ranks the doing of this (constructing a scale of rank or value) as #1.

The main point is that the ordinal ranking in the Misesian interpretation is a rank between that which is chosen and everything else not chosen. In this kind of ranking, it is more accurate to conceive of the difference between “1” and “0” (the thing chosen versus the null set), than it is to conceive of the difference between 1, 2, 3, and 4 (an establishment of a numerical hierarchy).

The idea of identifying two or more concrete things, and assigning numbers of rank to each thing, is something different than the concept of a “uni-presence” that by its presence, excludes all else.

I might be mistaken, but I actually think you are wrong. I believe utility is considered the benefit(s) of the end itself, not the means used to attain it.

I’m not entirely sure what kind of answer you are asking for.

Utility denotes that subjective valuation on the part of an agent which explains why said agent acts in the way that they do

What is “valuation,” then?

P.S. Please believe that I am not asking this to be a jerk.

I consider utility to be the value of the economic good in question towards the purpose of reaching an end. The end itself has a utility of its own. Let’s take an apple and an orange, and let’s say that I ascribe to the apple a higher utility than the orange. I believe this because the satisfaction garnered from the apple is higher than that of the orange. To be more specific, the individual is looking to attain a specific satisfaction (let’s call it satisfaction X). The apple is valued higher than the orange because the apple is a superior means towards the satisfaction (the apple itself is not a satisfaction).

This can also incorporate, then, the fact that it may take a number of economic goods to attain a certain end, each with their own utility (that is, their utility is not equal to the end attained).

Google search turned up this. Skip the first 8 or 9 paras.

Clayton -

Mises: Human Action:

**“**Utility means in this context simply: causal relevance for the removal of felt uneasiness. Acting man believes that the services a thing can render [the means, X] are apt to improve his own well-being [the end, Y], and calls this the utility of the thing concerned. For praxeology the term utility is tantamount to importance attached to a thing [the means, X] on account of the belief that it can remove uneasiness [the end, y]. The praxeological notion of utility (subjective use-value in the terminology of the earlier Austrian economists)…”

(bold & bracketed added)

Those are immensely useful quotes. Thank you. I recently read a paper titled Neuroscience and Paternalism that argues “that three separable neural systems are relevant for choice and welfare: a hedonic ‘liking’ system (welfare), a ‘wanting’ system that guides choice, and a learning system that, ideally, links information stored in the other systems so that people choose to learn what they truly like.” That is what spurred my questioning of the Austrian-economic position on utility.

That is, pace Mises and Rothbard, happiness (i.e., welfare, satisfaction, well-being) can be radically divorced from a choice; in other words, it is not necessarily the case that “acting man believes that the services a thing can render are more apt to improve his own well-being,” but rather than one can want what one doesn’t even like. In the aforementioned paper, for example, genetically-engineered mice neurochemically wanted goods more, but derived less satisfaction from them.

I’m not willing to defend this position against counterarguments, although I am personally now considering this neuroeconomic approach and it is having an effect on my own philosophy. I have found it immensely interesting, since it avoids the circular position typical of revealed-preference theory: what one chooses is one’s highest preference and one’s highest preference is what one chooses.

Thank you to all who have contributed answers. I very much appreciate it.

The most accessible and sensible description of utility I have ever read is in Bastiat’s [Economic Harmonies](http://www.econlib.org/library/Bastiat/basHar2.html#Chapter 2). He says,

Bastiat makes a couple interesting observations:

  • Sense experience qua sense experience and the states of mind to which sense experience gives rise are brute facts to the soul or consciousness. It is what it is. I think this idea is infused into our language and culture. Consider the many tropes surrounding falling in and out of love as a purely involuntary process. Now, we all know that we actually have complete control over the actions we take in response to romantic feelings. But these feelings are experienced so powerfully and so passively that we portray it in fiction as something that is actually involuntary.

  • Sense experiences can be thought of as a series of discrete events with a binary outcome, pleasure or pain. This removes the problem of trying to think of “how much” pleasure or pain someone derives from something and cuts it down to the discrete, binary scale of whether it is an event the person would like to experience more in the future or avoid in the future. I have no doubt this could be reduced to strictly neurological language.

  • The actions which a person takes in response to sense experiences have the aim or end of multiplying pleasurable sense experiences and reducing painful sense experiences.

This doesn’t quite get you to utility but I think it’s a good metaphysical discussion from which to begin.

Clayton -

I’m not willing to defend this position against counterarguments

I shan’t bother offering those critiques then…, even though I could use Lord Robbins to put the smack down (and from 60years ago!)

From the article previously cited:

Pareto and his contemporaries, such as Edgeworth and Jevons, all believed in the “concrete deductive method” of John Stuart Mill, which starts with simple empirical regularities or “laws” and makes deductions from those regularities.3 Furthermore, all of these scholars believed that understanding the hedonic basis of utility was necessary, in a form that is now called psychology (but was not called psychology then). As Jevons wrote: “But it is surely obvious that economics does rest upon laws of human enjoyment; and that, if those laws are developed by no other science, they must be developed by economists. . . . [T]he theory of economics must begin with a correct theory of consumption.”

Pareto’s view was the opposite: he thought rooting economic preferences in psychological detail was an unnecessary burden. . . . Pareto advocated divorcing economics from psychology by simply assuming that unobserved utility is necessarily revealed by choice. . . . Remember that Pareto did not win this argument about how to proceed by mathematical proof or data. The equation of utility with choice was not a scientific discovery on par with a powerful theorem or solid empirical regularity. Pareto simply asserted that, as a matter of convenience, it was okay to give up on understanding the “essence of things.”

Of course, the equation of utility and choice was also historically justifiable in the early 1900s because measuring utility directly, at that time, was as far-fetched as, say, sending people to the moon or cloning animals. In Pareto’s day there was no ability to place electrodes into a monkey or human brain and record firing rates of individual neurons, to alter genes in mice and see what those mice can’t do, to record online brain activity with 3-mm spatial resolution using PET or fMRI, to identify areas of brain damage (lesions) in humans and see what skills those humans lack, to genotype people and correlate genes with behavior and skill, to give humans drugs and see how their behavior changes, or to create “temporary lesions” using transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS).

The huge advances in all these tools force the reader to draw one of two conclusions: (1) Pareto was right in his own time—he and his peers shouldn’t have tried to measure utility directly, it was hopeless—and his intellectual heirs are still right today, because their tools can’t possibly measure utility, or (2) Pareto was right then because the tools didn’t exist, but the neo-Paretians are wrong now because we have tools to measure utility that didn’t exist in Pareto’s time (and the tools will only get better). Conclusion (1) might be right, but betting that something is impossible in science is dangerous and neglects the option value of exploring wild ideas. Conclusion (2) is the progressive conclusion with upside potential.

The ideas in this Essay are not an insistence that revealed-preference theory has not been useful. It has, and will continue to be. But the usefulness of one theory tells us nothing about whether an alternative approach might prove equally useful.

I personally believe it’s scientifically backwards to revere those arguments “from 60years [sic] ago.”

From Camerer’s paper, Austrians side with option 1: “Pareto was right in his own time—he and his peers shouldn’t have tried to measure utility directly, it was hopeless—and his intellectual heirs are still right today, because their tools can’t possibly measure utility.” However, I fully endorse option 2: “Pareto was right then because the tools didn’t exist, but the neo-Paretians are wrong now because we have tools to measure utility that didn’t exist in Pareto’s time (and the tools will only get better).”

I certainly don’t know that!

Heck, I’m not even sure what you mean by having “complete control.” Your intuitive appeal to commonsense notions of free will are, in reality, much more problematic than you make them seem.

Besides which as a critique of the Austrian conception the trichotimy of wanting-liking-learning is in no way superior to the Austrian understanding.

The subjective valuation that explains an act is one of expected utility, and of course under repeated conditions this can be informed by learning.

The claim that people want stuff that they don’t like, is simply misleading as it confuses time.

People want things that they expect to like, they might find they don’t like it when they get it. (or in the case of mice that get what they want and keep going out there to get it, there is no praxeological law entailing what their dopamine levels should go to and how much they should smile and laugh and proclaim their love for the ends that they routinely obtain) .

so much for launching new paradigms of understanding…

i think that his thread could help rettoper very much. reading it and the references presented will help him coming to the insight that threads like “rebuting an-cap” are not the smartest thing to do.

Like I said, I’m not much in the mood for a debate on this, but I want to add that these remarks from Robbins are exactly the sort that Colin Camerer challenges: Robbins is speaking from the scientific ignorance of his time, and his darkness should not be used to blow out the weak candles we are now lighting. Such aged comments as testing “the state of their blood-steams” to measure satisfaction should provoke our amusement; clearly, Robbins could not foresee the radical advancements in technology that now let us better measure psychic well-being.

Furthermore, the term “satisfaction” itself begs for explanation; did Austrians then or now provide one? Only a neuroscientific explanation will do, of course, and such an explanation would provide quantified data.

I appreciate your knowledge on these Austrian topics, but I do encourage you to actually read the paper I had linked.

better measure psychic well-being.

you mean measure dopamine levels in brain fluid (big difference from blood right?) ; this is utility/value/satisfaction ?

Here we have no choice but to skate out onto thin empirical ice: how do you measure liking?

yes, thin ice

also Austrian economics is not concerned with the behaviour of mice…