We had a thread on this not too long ago. Some issues to keep in mind:
The market in loans is not nearly as homogeneous as modern concepts would suggest… the risk profile of one loan to the next is based in a multitude of particular factors that vary from one loan to the next. Thus, there is no such thing as “the” interest rate. An interest rate is only meaningful relative to the loan to which it is attached.
However, like any “confidence” problem, loans can be rated according to the quantifiable attributes of their riskiness (a lot like how insurance works). The risk of loss of principal is one of the key factors determining the price of the loan (interest rate) but certain factors like income, collateral, cosigners, legal security of lenders, and so on all mitigate the risk of lending money and the presence/absence of these factors can be used to categorize loans on the basis of risk.
This is why it’s not as simple as “more funds available to be borrowed equals a lower interest rate.”
However, for a given risk-class, we can ask what happens if there are more loanable funds or less. All things equal, if there are more funds available to be loaned, this implies there is greater competition among holders of capital to identify eligible borrowers in that risk class, which implies a lower interest rate.
And make no mistake, the interest rate is a price, it is just not “the price of money”, it is the price of borrowed funds (loanable funds). David Friedman compares it to rent since the principal is to be returned at the end of the loan. The “price of money” is always 1.0… that is, the price of money is defined in terms of itself and is, thus, identity. Or, a more informative way to think of the price of money is in terms of the things that it can buy. But it’s crucial to remember that this is not a well-defined price because you can never choose a truly representative “basket of good” by which to measure the price of money. This is the ineradicable problem of a “consumer price index.”
The “originary interest rate” is the disposition of individuals to rank future as against present goods. This is a purely psychological ranking and it is the sole determiner of the availability of loanable funds and the demand for borrowed funds for a given rate of profit from lending (investment).
The rate of profit from lending varies over time and is never the same from industry to industry (though the tendency over time is for it to move towards equilibrium across all industries). The rate of profit from lending is also not guaranteed (investment in a venture that eventually goes bankrupt is a catastrophe, not a profit). Nevertheless, as this rate of profit changes overall, it fundamentally alters the relative attractiveness of investment activity versus other uses of wealth.
This is the sense in which the market in loanable funds responds to “the interest rate” - all else equal, a higher interest rate means a larger profit from lending, thus making lending a more attractive venture vis-a-vis other uses of resources (consumption, saving, etc.) But it’s key to remember that because loans are not homogeneous, because there is no “the” interest rate, and so on, that the market can move simultaneously up and down… investment can become less attractive in one area and more attractive in another area and there is no general way to say whether investment-as-a-whole has become more or less in demand.
Clayton -