Bob Murphy is a Keynesian

http://consultingbyrpm.com/blog/2011/07/is-keynes-from-heaven-or-hell.html

He

  1. rejects Hayek’s defense against Sraffa

  2. agrees with Keynes’ view of interest rates more than Mises

but does not believe in wage/price rigidity. HOWEVER, wage/price rigidity is not needed for Keynesian views of the business cycle.

In short, Murphy and Lachmann have finally built the bridge that connects the Austrian School to the Keynesian School.

Ignoring all policy recommendations, we may see an Austro-Keynesian synthesis as far as neutral, scientific analysis is concerned.

Ugh, Lachmann was an Austrian. Any attribution to Keynesianism is only in regards to his views on radical subjectivism. But, Lachmann considered Mises a radical subjectivist, as well. Lachmann did not agree with Keynes on the liquidity preference theory of interest, as far as I know. Lachmann certainly did not build any “bridge” in a synthesis. Where does Murphy talk about Sraffa, Prateek?

Murphy has a (unpublished and unposted; email him for it) paper in which he explains his position on the Sraffa-Hayek debate. He basically sides with Sraffa, and shows the error in Lachmann’s defense of Hayek.

Lachmann is an arch-austrian. I don’t think his methodology is going to be at all compatible with what most keynesians call economics.

Then I guess Bob would be the first Keynesian anarcho capitalist. I am not sure how that works out..

I like Rothbards classification of Lachmann and Hayek. Lachmann/Hayek I and II. Lachmann and Hayek I were good, writing books on Austrian capital theory and the production structure. The later Lachmann and Hayek II, however, wrote alot of bunk (at least in Rothbards view) and non Misesian Austrian economics concerning spontaneous order, knowledge, radical uncertainty of the future, etc (this is not to say they wrote about the same stuff, I’m just listing their contributions together).

Bob Murphy is a Keynesian etc etc and so forth

Somebody doesnt understand something

Does anybody have his dissertation saved? The NYU link doesn’t seem to work. I thought I had it, but I only have a small working paper of his on the topic. Can somebody send it to jonathan.catalan at gmail.com? I would appreciate it.

I have his dissertation. I’ll send it to you.

Thanks! Got it.

The debate Murphy is having with everyone seems to echo a question I asked back when I started reading economics and my answer to a thread a couple of months ago. Can savings, also known as restricting consumption, be hoarded? Are “hoards” savings and a reflection of time preference or only the reservation demand for money?

Contrary to Murphy, I have to side with the others and say that an individual’s demand for money per se is unrelated to time preferences and savings. If an individual works for John Smith and earns $20 and puts it under his matress, he is only certifying his demand for money and is not lowering his time preference or saving/investing in the capital structure in any manner whatsoever. Individuals hold money because of the uncertain future and as to whether they should buy either consumer or capital goods.Only when he reliquinshes availability of his cash by either loaning it out or buying factors for a production process is he saving; otherwise with the cash in his balance he only satisifies his demand for money and the end of alleviating uncertainty.

An individual’s cash balance is determiend by his demand for money and the PPM, the proportion between consumption and savings determines the I.R.

yo can someone send me his dissertation too!?

I look online earlier to no avail.

Savings =/= restricted monetary expenditure; it is the demand for future goods. Holding onto a portion of your monetary income in order to facilitate transactions =/= a higher demand for future goods; it is not saving. Mises’, in The Theory of Money and Credit, makes a clear distinction between the demand for (a) consumer goods, (b) future goods and (c) cash balances.

Also, Bob Murphy thinks that rising market interest rates during periods of heightened uncertainty is somehow problematic for the Austrian framework. I could see how this is potentially anomalous for someone using Rothbard’s monetary framework, but traditional Austrian monetary theory recognizes that during such periods, there is a higher demand for cash balances, which will elevate market interest rates (potentially above the natural rate). Hayek writes about this extensively (calls it “secondary phenomena”).

On another note, it’s hard to call Lachmann a Keynesian, though he did refer to himself as an “Austro-Keynesian.” He entirely rejected Keynes’ theory of interest and trade cycle analysis, but he did place a lot of emphasis on uncertainty and the role of expectations in the role of price formation. He also concluded that prices may yield and in fact perpetuate disqequilibrium. I don’t know if he endorsed Keynes’ treatment of decision making under uncertainty, but his work really stressed this variable (something that Hayek’s early works completely ignored).

What I meant by “restricting” is relinquishing avaiability (and “restricting”) P.G (money that can be spent on consumer goods) by loaning it out or buying factors of production (and thereby purchasing F.G), like when I said

Perhaps I did not make myself clear at the beginning, I apologize then. I meant “restricting” in a real “strict” (ba dum diiish) sense of the term, the individual forgoes his claim to the P.G.

Could you explain this a little futher? Intrigued at what you mean “traditional” as opposed to Rothbard’s monetary framework.

http://mises.org/journals/scholar/murphy2.pdf

To be clear, I wasn’t critiquing what you were saying. I was only highlighting what you were alluding to because many people conflate the desire to hold additional cash balances with the demand for future goods. This error often leads to major confusion.

Okay so I’ll highlight some of the main differences between Rothnard’s monetary framework and the traditional Austrian (Wicksell-Mises-Hayek) monetary framework.

  • (a) Rothbard
  • (b) Traditional Wicksell-Mises-Hayek

(a) Two different definitions of inflation: (1) an expansion in the supply of money, and (2) an expansion in the supply of money beyond the available supply of gold. Any supply of money is sufficient.

(b) Inflation is defined as an expansion in the supply of money beyond the demand for money. At any given price level, the supply of money may be “insufficient” (will yield monetary disequilibrium).

(a) Deflation is always a beneficial and natural mechanism which either (a) corrects malinvestments caused by an inflationary period which preceded it, or (b) represents natural and sustainable economic growth.

(b) Deflation may represent a disequilibrium condition when either the supply of money rises above the demand for money and/or the demand for money rises above the supply of money (again, monetary disequilibrium). Monetary disequilibrium will yield disequilibrium in the loan market (money rate of interest will exceed the natural rate of interest), and cause certain distortions/imbalances until it is corrected (this position is explicit in Hayek and Wicksell’s work, but only implicit in Mises’ work. Hayek referred to this condition as “secondary phenomena”, and Wicksell referred to it as a “rot”).

(a) Fractional reserve banking always yields one form of inter-temporal disequilibrium (when the money rate of interest is suppressed below the natural rate) because the banks expand the supply of money beyond the amount that has been entrusted to them on the part of the public in the form of savings.

(b) Endogenous monetary expansion is not problematic, and is in fact stabilizing, if the newly created sums are used to satiate changes in the demand for cash holdings, and not used for additional investment/consumption. Additionally, there are organic mechanisms within the banking system which prevents systematic expansion in the supply of money beyond the demand for money.

In short, Rothbardian’s don’t deny that there’s a demand for money, but they seem to ignore some of the implications of this phenomena, and I believe this is what’s causing Murphy’s confusion.

Thanks, SD!

Should be:

(a) Mises-Rothbard

(b) Traditional Wicksell- Hayek

Been hashed out long ago, here: https://forum.freecapitalists.org/t/the-conservative-case-for-qe2-or-why-i-still-will-not-be-an-austrian/17125

Jacob, YW.

I actually agree with much of what Esuric said here about the difference between demand for money (Rothbard’s reservation demand for money) and demand for future goods. I don’t frankly think he is that familiar with Rothbard’s framework on monetary theory, which is basically an enhanced version of the Misesian framework. Rothbard’s monetary equation is simply brilliant: Total demand for money= reservation demand + exchange demand, always and everywhere! It puts Mises monetary theory in a simple but brilliant equation.