On another forum I encountered this argument:
Free marketers always claim the “bust” and other problems of capitalism have their root cause in gov’t intervention. However, the most intense periods of gov’t intervention in the market occurred in the post WWII Bretton Woods era which also coincided with the most stable era in modern capitalism. It was only when economists began to tear apart the post WWII structures that major problems which the West hadn’t seen since the Great Depression started to occur again.
In an other example, we have two countries with the same language and essentially the same business culture yet in 2008 one suffered a severe banking crisis while the other reported few if any problems. The former (US) had steadily deregulated its system since the late 70s while the latter (Canada)maintained a well regulated banking sector. Now some may claim that it was the peculiar nature of the remaining regulations in the US that led to the meltdown however that only admits that its the type of regulation that is the problem.
Mises well discredits the idea of using historical events discern economic principles in Human Action. However, in replying to someone how does not accept this premise it would be helpful to state some examples of specific and particular reasons that might have caused Canada’s more highly regulated banks not to fail, as those in the US had in 2008. Can anyone help here?
P.S. Norway was elsewhere referenced in the same manner as Canada per above.