I’m sure there’s been some discussion on this before, but I haven’t seen any of it, so I was wondering if anyone had any thoughts on his critique of austrian economics.
I think his argument that there can be unrealised preferences completely misunderstands subjective value theory and is basically him attempting to force his own preferences onto others; his conception of demand is simplistic and personally I think demand can only be shown as realised demand.
Of course, much of his argument is built on this one principle.
Does anyone have any more detailed points against his article/essay?