This is a very general assertion. Care to support? In what way does “property require action”?
The definition of property. Non-acting, uncommunicating beings can’t acquire property, not that they would have any property rights either way.
A fetus is freely given its body by both father and mother and then supported in life by the mother.
Unless and until it isn’t.
If so you’re supporting the idea of slavery or ownership of human beings.
Slavey is a violation of property rights, which a fetus can’t have.
If the fetus is human, why can’t it own or possess things?
Because it can’t act, and doesn’t need to act. We’re going in circles…
The mother in fact biologically exerts no control over the body of the fetus.
This is empirically wrong. The mother, in plain fact, is the only person who exerts direct and immediate control, and therefore possession, of the fetus. Ownership is the right to possess, possession is the fact of direct and immediate control.
If you agree that the fetus is human then you need to explain why being merely young means it can’t own or possess anything. If the fetus is not human, according to you, you need to explain what principle or fact of reality makes it human at what point and why that would be.
Human rights are fallacious, as you’ve demonstrated quite thoroughly. Only property rights are consistent (and only property rights can be proved from an axiom). A fetus can’t have property.
A human being cannot be owned by anyone but itself.
Because it has a property and a property right in its self. None of these mean anything to a fetus.
I attack abortion on the principle of wholly equal rights.
Then you start from a fallacy, as I’ve demonstrated. A fetus doesn’t have rights.
You’re suggesting a world where murder is acceptable and doing all you can to sidestep the fact of it.
No. I’m saying a fetus doesn’t have property rights, and that nobody else has a property right in the matter. Nearly all murders can involve property and therefore someone can prosecute. This isn’t true for a fetus.
So if a caretaker is taking care of an elderly person and they don’t want to anymore, they can simply walk away and allow the elderly patient to die without moral culpability? How is that any good.
Fallacy, we’re talking about property rights not the morals of dealing with the elderly. Under no circumstances is slavery permissible, and this is no exception. That’s the point of libertarianism: there are no exceptions, not for fetuses, and not for grandmas. Rights are property rights, for individual, thinking, acting humans.
Do you have any rationale, any pricniple for this belief at all. Any at all.
Unlike you, yes, a dictionary, which I referenced several times above (you must have ignored it) and which I’ve directed you to repeatedly.
As I said, my reference is reality itself. The ultimate reference. I need no other.
Then, as Rothbard said, you can argue with yourself.