I suppose this is a question, technically, but I’d like some discussion. I’ve been a reader of the Mises Institute for 3 short years, so pardon me if I’m terribly ignorant. As far as I know, I’m the only person from whom I’ve heard this argument. Which gives me the uneasy feeling that I’m way off. Or I haven’t read enough yet.
I posit corporations exist to provide consumers with a product in demand. In a free market, their profts (or lack thereof) would simply be a reflection of how efficiently they provided that product. Things such as wage payments or distribution of benefits (insurance, vacation, etc) are only leverages to compete beyond the marketplace of their product. This flies in the face of those, such as Occupiers, who think corporations exist only to make money. In addition to those – I’ve seen libertarians take this stance – who think corporations exist only to make their shareholders money.
Now, even if someone did go into business just to make money, how would they do that? Successful entrepreneurs gauge the economy exceptionally well, and therefore are the most efficient at providing their product or service. This ultimately leads to more, or more efficient, production in society, and consequently, a higher standard of living. So, even if a person’s reasons for going into business are amoral, or worse, immoral, in a free market their end product is almost neccesarily moral.
This is, of course, invalidated by a state. Especially a powerful, central government. In this case, the immoral businessman can skirt by not providing for society, because he can bribe (lobby) the law and policy makers. This is what we have now with Big Pharma, Agribusiness, Big Oil, Wall Street and the Military Industrial Complex, among many others.
Am I completely off base here? It sounds like a logical argument to me, but I’m sure some of you more mentally inclined Austrians will be able to tear it apart somewhere… Not that I’d be upset. I’m just trying to learn here. Thanks for any insight.
Viam Fibonacci