There are a large number empty seats at Olympic venues (at one point, the army was called in to fill some of them!), and a large number of people eager to fill them but being unable to get tickets, and so I have been involved in many discussions with people about why this is the case. The blame is generally being placed on the corporate sponsors, because they are apparently not using the tickets that were given to them as part of their sponsorship deal. I’ve been trying to make the more general point that the problem was the method of ticket distribution as a whole. The method used was 1) giving away a whole bunch of tickets to the sponsors, 2) offering the rest to the public at an extremely low price, and then randomly allocating tickets to applicants, and 3) strictly forbidding trading of tickets second-hand.
I wrote about all this in a blog post from September last year: In Defense of Market Pricing and Ticket Scalping.
At the weekend I was involved in a challenging discussion about ticket distribution in general, and I was not happy with the way I responded. I thought I’d share it here to see what you guys would say, and to check my understanding as well.
My general argument was that the Olympic tickets, and any tickets for sport/cultural events, should ideally have been sold at the revenue-maximising price, as this would have resulted in the venues being filled by precisely the most capable buyers. And tickets should definitely be freely tradeable to correct for inevitable changes in demand conditions and entrepreneurial errors.
The argument I encountered at the weekend was, essentially, that in some cases at least, the demand schedule for events tickets is such that the revenue-maximising price results in unsold tickets.
For example, you have a 10,000 seater venue. At £20, you’ll sell 8,000 tickets. At £10.01, you’ll still sell 8,000 tickets. At £10, you’ll sell all 10,000 tickets. Here, you are better off selling at £20 (£160k revenue) than at £10 (£100k revenue), and throwing away 2,000 of the tickets, leaving 2,000 empty seats. How can this be a good thing, I am asked.
At one point in the discussion, I was asserting that demand schedules are usually not like this so it’s not really an issue, and that usually the revenue-maximising price will be the price which gets all the supply distributed to the buyers with the highest demand. But he simply asserted the opposite: that demand schedules are quite often like this. I had no response to that. It would seem to be an issue requiring some empirical evidence.
Or perhaps I was on the wrong track, and it actually IS “a good thing”, in the Austrian perspective, that, given the demand schedules as in the example above, some tickets are unsold and some seats are empty?