This has been discussed several times. In summary, it has been said that some tribes accepted some idea of land ownership, whilst others did not. Of course, it is completely impossible to trace the ties that would lead to anyone specifically claiming anything.
If you were a nomadic tribe, would all of your traveling area considered your property, even if it was seasonally homesteaded, then abandoned over and over?
There is a big difference. In a partnership each individual has defined terms of ownership. He owns his portion of the partnership as an individual and has some rights over the assets of the partnership as an individual. In collective ownership the individuals in the collective have no rights at all over the property being claimed to be collectively owned. Instead, some individual or conspiracy of individuals exercise actual control over the assets. They are the real owners, not the collective.
A farmer planting a field has not homesteaded the oil beneath it, but only the surface. A pastoral nomad using a parcel of land for grazing of animals does not homesteaded that land, but only an easement to be allowed to use this land for grazing again in the future. ( So a farmer can homestead a piece of land that the nomads use for grazing, but then he is going to need to allow the nomads to graze their livestock on his fields, albeit not for more days than they would have grazed on it if the land was not jet cultivated. )
There is very little land that Indians own, however they own an easement to be allowed free access for the purpose of hunting over huge areas of it. Plus they would be owed compensation for the fact they can not kill the same amount of animals they could before Colombus, if the people who exterminated all those animals were still alive.