Now I will do a complete rebuttal, right now, since someone asked for one.
“The economic calculation argument (ECA) has to do with the claim that, in the absence of market prices, a socialist economy would be unable to make rational choices concerning the allocation of resources and that this would make socialism an impracticable proposition. Tracing the historical development of this argument, this article goes on to consider some of its basic assumptions about how the price mechanism actually works in practice; in so doing, it attempts to demonstrate that the argument is based upon fundamentally shaky foundations. A rational approach to the allocation of resources in a socialist economy is then sketched out. Such an approach is predicated on a particular view of socialism as entailing a largely decentralised – or polycentric – structure of decision-making in contrast to the view typically held by proponents of the ECA that socialism would entail central – or society-wide – planning. Applying a decentralised model of socialist decision-making, this article identifies a number of key components of such a model and goes on to show how, through the interactions of these key components, the objections to socialism raised by the ECA are decisively overcome.”
I think rational choices would be a bit of a stretch. As the planners in charge of socialism can still make rational choices towards means and ends that they want to achieve, the problem is that they would be misallocating, as they don’t have enough information.
Now some questions:
-
In your introduction you haven’t defined socialism. How do you define it?
-
Ok, socialism is polycentric? How would that work? What would the government be like, if there was one?
Good luck.
Historical background:
"…
The aborted attempt to introduce so called “war communism” in 1918-1921 (in reality, a rigorous system of centralised rationing which, moreover, still retained elements of the market, rather than “free access” communism)"
I agree it retained elements of the market. And it was centralized. But how would retaining elements of the market cause it to fail? And which elements specifically?
“The aborted attempt to introduce so called “war communism” in 1918-1921 (in reality, a rigorous system of centralised rationing which, moreover, still retained elements of the market, rather than “free access” communism)”
It seems like you are forgetting other socialist movements. I look forward to seeing evidence that describes how your system will not fail.
An illustrative example:
"
So what exactly is the ECA about? To elucidate its core claims it would be helpful to use a hypothetical – and highly simplified – example.
Assume a factory in socialism manufactures a particular kind of consumer good, X. Assume that in order to manufacture X only two kinds of inputs are needed, A and B. Let us then suppose that there are three different methods for producing 1 unit of X which involve three different combinations of A and B, as follows:
Method 1 requires 9 units of A and 10 units of B Method 2 requires 10 units of A and 9 units of B Method 3 requires 10 units of A and 10 units of B
This prompts the question: which method should this factory chose in order to produce 1 unit of X? One might argue that it would make sense to use as few resources as possible to produce a given output since that would leave more resources over for doing other things. This alludes to what economists call “opportunity cost”. The opportunity cost of doing something is the best alternative you forego as a result. If you use a certain quantity of resources to produce one thing then you deny yourself the opportunity of using those same resources to produce something else. By minimising your opportunity costs you maximise the amount of resources that can be used for other purposes."
First, you are implicitly assuming that the goods are homogeneous. This is not necessarily true, even if they are indistinguishable, people may use how they are made in terms of their valuations. Using as few resources as possible isn’t always the best choice, and you don’t allude to the problem of picking between two different resources, even though you implied that it may be an issue! And you seem to be missing the point of opportunity cost, as it is really just the “next best option”. The point isn’t to minimize opportunity costs, the point is to pick the production process that can achieve the desired ends, using the goods (means).
"
“In terms of our example, this would require our factory at the outset to reject method 3. Why? Because while method 3 uses the same number of units of B as method 1, it uses more units of A.”
Not always the right choice. Do consumers prefer goods that are made by method 3? Do workers prefer working in method 3? Is the good different when produced by method 3? A factory that only tries to minimize by amount of resources may be in error.
“In other words, there is no opportunity cost involved in rejecting 3 in favour of 1 or 2 assuming the output is identical in each case.”
Not necessarily true.
“However it is possible method 3 may result in a slightly higher quality version of X because of the additional unit of A or B used (compared to method 1 or 2) in which case a small opportunity cost might be incurred.”
At least you admit that the goods may be different. And wrong use of opportunity cost in this excerpt. It should be that the opportunity cost of producing X units of method 1 is Y units of method 2 that are higher quality.
“All this is fairly straightforward and there is no suggestion by proponents of the ECA that a socialist economy cannot ascertain whether one method of producing something is more – or less – technically efficient than another.”
You are vague with this statement. Is it only in cases where methods of production are worse in all possible aspects? It could be interpreted more broadly.
“Socialism is based on the common ownership of the means of production.”
How does common ownership exist?
Going to next section.
"
But what is actually happening in this “transformation process” whereby the “incommensurable subjective valuations” of individuals purportedly come to be expressed as objective exchange ratios or prices? Do the latter in fact actually capture the former? There is a kernel of truth in the claim that they do in that obviously if someone is willing to pay a price for a good he or she must ipso facto subjectively value that good. Otherwise the “willingness to pay” for it would not have arisen. But, of course, in a market economy mere “willingness to pay” is not enough; the means of payment – purchasing power- is what is crucially required and it is only willingness to pay that is backed up by purchasing power that actually affects prices. This is what economists call “effective demand” (presumably to be distinguished from “ineffective demand”). The subjective valuation that a pauper places on a square meal may be considerable but in the absence of the wherewithal to pay for such a meal, this counts for nothing. In short, the subjective valuations individuals place on goods cannot reasonably be said to be captured or embodied by the objective prices such goods attract in the market. Indeed, one might add that to suggest that they do, flatly contradicts a key myth of bourgeois economics – namely, that our wants are essentially “infinite” and the resources to meet them, limited.
"
Comments:
- If someone is willing to pay for a good, they value the good more than the means used, not just that they value the good.
- You used purchasing power as the term? I would say a good with purchasing power.
- True on willingness to pay backed up by enough purchasing power.
- Fallacy when you say that the subjective valuations are not captured by the market process. The point is that they reflect relative valuations of goods, not if they would prefer having it as opposed to not having it.
- How does it contradict scarcity? It doesn’t follow.
- SCARCITY EXISTS. IT IS NOT A MYTH. EVEN IF EVERY PHYSICAL GOOD THAT I COULD EVER WANT EXISTED, THE FACT THAT I CAN DO ONLY ONE THING AT A TIME REFLECTS SCARCITY, AS I DO NOT HAVE THE POWER TO SATISFY ALL OF MY WANTS SIMULTANEOUSLY. THE FACT THAT PEOPLE ACT IMPLIES SCARCITY, AS IF ALL WANTS ARE SATISFIED, PEOPLE WOULD NOT NEED TO ACT.
Sorry about my rant, but I think this is a clear weakness in the argument.
“It may be objected that while it does not aim to “quantify” our wants as such (along a cardinal scale), price does nevertheless reflect our subjective valuations insofar as it sheds light on our preferences (along an ordinal scale).”
No. Price is a reflection that people have different subjective valuations. You are attempting to confuse the issue by use of equivocating aggregate prices with individual valuations. And how does your argument address that there are no universal prices?
“However, this still does not get round the basic problem: in a market economy you cannot express a preference if you do not have the means to do so: purchasing power.”
Why not just clearly say that the problem is that people are poor, instead of cloaking it in eloquent language? And the point of a preference is showing willingness to exchange X for Y through action, it is meaningless if I don’t have X.
“While, according to conventional economics, effective demand determines price in conjunction with supply of the goods demanded, this effective demand is itself grossly unequally distributed by virtue of the unequal distribution of income.”
You just redefined demand, presuming it is quantifiable. How is this so? And please be more coherent with your ideas.
And this begs the question. How did these rich individuals get their wealth?
“Austrians respond to this by arguing that such differentials reflect the valuations individuals place on different occupations and the different contributions they make to society (which “society” duly “rewards” them for) but there is no way of testing this claim since such valuations are themselves subject to the limitations of “effective demand””
How did they get the wealth to begin with? This isn’t an effective argument, as I can just respond that in a free market economy, individuals originally got their wealth this way.
“Thus, frivolous luxury goods can be “valued” more highly – i.e., attract a higher price – than food for the hungry because a rich elite has vastly more purchasing power at its disposal to competitively bid for, and so push up the price of, the former compared to the latter.”
Problem? Keep in mind prices determine costs, and if it wasn’t costly to produce these luxury goods, entreprenuers would bid the price down to remain competitive.
“We should bear these points in mind in considering the merits or otherwise of the ECA; it is based on so-called objective data”
Not based on objective data. Prices may appear objective, but are inherantly based on subjective valuations, and may change if the valuations change.
“To believe otherwise is to commit what is called the Fallacy of Composition – the illusion that what is true for each part of a whole must be true for the whole”
I think you are commiting a strawman. Austrians never claim that prices are subjective, rather they depend on subjective valuations.
I want a break as this article is long. I will continue reviewing it.