I was discussing the calculation problem in the planned economy with someone and now I’m stumped. I’m not sure if I’ve maneuvered myself into the situation by arguing wrongly or if my opponent is unwilling to admit a defeat, so please help me out.
Background: planned economy, planner X has control over all resources, consumer wishes are found out by a sophisticated electronic polling system without prices (we’ll assume for the sake of the argument that this actually works).
Me: People can tell you what they would like to have, but without a pricing system, how do they coordinate their wishes? I.e., why should they not demand a racing car as urgently as a washing machine?
X: People will add preferences, i.e. “Most importantly, I need food, then a washing machine, then a racing car”. My polling system will demand this.
Me: Granted that it’s possible to accurately discriminate between goods of different utility, what is keeping people from demanding the best, most expensive, most lavish in every single utility field? I.e., a Lamborghini instead of a Camry? Caviar instead of potatoes? There’s no penalty for demanding the best because there are no prices to distinguish them.
X: They will have to add alternatives. If they don’t add proper alternatives, they may get nothing at all.
Me: So who decides whom to give what kind of quality product? By what standard?
X: Me, by my own.
Me: So you’re just acting arbitrarily and randomly, just like every central planner before you. You don’t have a concept for distributing resources at all. You just admitted my point.
X: You tried to prove that prices are necessary, not that my distribution system is bad. You failed.
Any ideas? Thank you in advance.