Fractional reserve banking

It’s not so much that I’m a supporter for either method of banking. I’d prefer the option to freely choose how you want to bank your money.

I object to that “fdic and fed required to keep FRB solvent” statement because it’s not true. Take how the U.S. and Canada performed during the great depression. We had a fed (although FDIC was on its way) and Canada did not. With that logic we should expect Canadian banks to be dropping like flies due to the argument that FRB need a last resort to save them. Except they didn’t have bank failures, we did, and on a grand scale.

Our failures were due to our insistence on restricting branch banking and preventing banks from issuing their own currency.

I will agree that FDIC and Fed can keep dead banks alive, no doubt. But that’s a failure of central banking, not the institution of FRB.

http://www.terry.uga.edu/~selgin/files/cj9n2_9.pdf

Also, this is a pretty good article I enjoy guys.

The Scottish Free Banking era is an ambiguous case at best, even White has narrowed the period which he presents as a real-life example. Look for the critiques put forth by Rothbard, Dow, and Smithin. (Nothing against FRB though)

I’m actually Canadian. And I used to work for two Canadian banks no less. I’m not an expert on Canadian banking history but I can tell you that Canada has very few banks. Five up until the 1980’s. Five. So if they had “dropped like flies” it would have only taken an hour or so for them to be all gone. USA had likely what, a thousand in the 1930s? I suspect that Canadian banks, being a cozy gentlemen’s club, looked after each other in the depression just like a friendly central bank cartel would have.

We had thousands because of our stupid branch-banking policies. Canada did not possess the same distaste for private banking that the United States did (does).

So we should have had the Canadian government bust up the private cartel? If it was a private solution, what’s so bad.

Here is an article I found on the Canadian experience. I haven’t had the time to fully digest it, but its claims are opposite Monopsony’s.

http://eh.net/Clio/Conferences/ASSA/Dec_90/Kryzanowski-Roberts.shtml

Extract:…

The provision of government funds to avert a bank failure appears to have been initiated by the Government of Quebec. The Quebec Government financially assisted the merger of the Bank Nationale with the Banque d’Hochelaga in 1923 as follows [Globe (1924): 6]: … The arrangement between the Quebec Provincial Government and the Banque d’Hochelaga is a unique one. Whether the Quebec Government felt that it had a moral obligation to advance aid, or whether its motives were purely philanthropic is a most interesting question. So far as Ontario is concerned, it opens up the possibility that Home Bank creditors may press for similar consideration. Although the two cases are admittedly not parallel ones, the fact that a Provincial Government has come to the rescue in one case may suggest a line of action for interested parties in the other.

Partly based on this precedent, the depositors in the Home Bank petitioned the Canadian Government for compensation and received payment up to 35% of the value of their deposits.

After 1923, the Canadian government provided an implicit guarantee to the public that no chartered bank would be allowed to fail and cause depositor losses. This guarantee was implicit because it was never formally embodied in law, and it was equivalent to one hundred percent deposit insurance.11 Beckhart (1964) documents that government policy was to arrange forced mergers for insolvent banks. He argues that the impetus for mergers came primarily from smaller banks near failure and from government.

Evidence exists that bank mergers were designed to avoid firesale insolvency for the merger of the Bank Nationale with the Banque d’Hochelaga in 1923 (discussed earlier) and the takeover of the Weyburn Bank by the Imperial Bank in 1931.

While the impetus for mergers may not have come primarily from larger banks seeking to expand, they were willing participants and there was considerable “behind-the-scenes” manoeuvering by the larger banks to absorb each new target bank. “I think it a pity,” said another banker, “that the opportunity [Merchants Bank] was not offered to the other banks to participate in the business of the Merchants, and thus distribute the assets and the load, whatever its nature may be.” [Globe (1921a):�1].

With regard to the role of regulators, primary evidence for the existence of an implicit guarantee comes from parliamentary documents and the popular press during the 1920’s. A report in the Globe [(1921c):�1] described the rationale for the Federal Government’s approval of the merger of the Merchants Bank with the Bank of Montreal: “The merger is the only way out.” That is the considered opinion of Sir Henry Drayton, Minister of Finance, when asked if some other method could not have been found of meeting the crisis brought about by the troubles in the Merchants Bank … Sir Henry Drayton said that a merger was only justified when the rest of a bank had been wiped out, its capital impaired and the affairs of the bank in such a position that the interests of the depositors themselves required to be guaranteed. It is assumed here that that must be the position of the Merchants Bank.

“What would happen if you had not given the preliminary consent to such a merger?” Sir Henry was asked.

“The only alternative is insolvency, with a consequent loss to depositors,” was the reply. “That is my answer to criticisms of the Government’s action in permitting the merger.”

Although a proposal in 1914 to merge the Bank of Hamilton with the Royal was not approved by the then Minister of Finance, Sir Thomas White, a proposal to merge the then ailing Bank of Hamilton with the Bank of Commerce in 1923 was readily approved. [The Financial Post (1923a): 1, 16]

Similar sentiments were expressed during 1923 and 1924 when the failure of the Home Bank was scrutinized. A former Minister of Finance, Sir Thomas White, stated Government policy in favor of forced mergers to bank failures as follows:

Under no circumstances would I have allowed a bank to fail during the period in question�…�If it had appeared to me that the bank was not able to meet its public obligations, I should have taken steps to have it taken over by some other bank or banks, or failing that, would have given it necessary assistance under the Finance Act, 1914. [McKeown Commission (April�24, 1924, Vol.�5): 324].

Thank you for that information, it is very useful.

Still there is no link that FRB is itself the cause of instability. The instability was from government action, not the concept of FRB.

FRB inevitably causes the Austrian Business Cycle. make of that what you will

To the contrary, the connection between banking fraud and business cycles has been known for some time now (hundreds of years…) and predates the so Austrian school - here’s just one example. You can look up “banking school vs. currency school”.

PART TWO: Separation of Bank and State - William Leggett, Democratick Editorials: Essays in Jacksonian Political Economy [1834]

Interesting journal article here on Mises that I found

Pardon me if I side with the modern Austrian School over the currency and banking schools that cycles are not inherent in a free market.

because competition in ‘trustworthiness’ and ‘sound banking practices’ leads to the relative extinction of fiduciary media leaving commodity and full reserves the result?

Cycles aren’t inherent in a free market.

because its an article of faith, or because free markets would suppress the issuing of fiduciary media (continued injections of which cause the Austrian Business Cycle)? (or for some other reason that you guys want to tell me but haven’t told me yet?)

Because it will make extensive use of fiduciary media and minimizing the use of the commodity while providing stability.

Look into the differences between fractional reserve expansions under free banking and fractional reserve expansions under a central bank.

I have ?

The explanation for the business cycle that ‘austrians’ use is older than the ‘austrian’ school.

Oh wait, by ‘modern austrian school’ you mean a guy like Selgin and a couple more who are dangerously close to being money cranks (like you) ?

Right. And there’s never been a free market in money.

Irrelevant. Banks have ‘legal’ privileges regardless of the existence (or not) of a central bank.