I understand that this is basic stuff, but I haven’t seen any examples of this particular line being drawn, and I want to be certain that I’m not missing something here. I’m in the process of writing up a pamphlet explaining fractional reserve banking for people who opened an Economics text once, shuddered, and walked away from it forever.
Everyone here has already covered the basics like this, but bear with me, please - I’ll make the setup brief.
Joe, John, and Julie each deposit $100 in the Bank of Dan - so the Bank has $300 in deposits. At a fractional reserve of 10%, the Bank of Dan can now lend Mark, Mary, and Mabel each $1,000 - purely as accounting entries. This is the point almost everyone makes, but I haven’t seen the next step stated clearly.
When Mark, Mary, and Mabel repay the loans, the bank has turned a profit of $3,000 plus interest, minus overhead expenses and interest paid to Joe, Julie, and John on their deposits.
The bank loans money that doesn’t really exist - but people have to repay those loans out of money they’ve made or earned - so the bank ends up owning the proceeds of every loan it makes, not just the interest it charges on those loans.
I expect that the average person is going to be a bit shocked by the implications of this, but it looks even more wrong than how Rothbard and Schiff have laid it out - so I’m wondering if there’s some part of this that I’m missing, somehow.
Or is it really that profitable to run a fractional reserve bank?