One of the commenters has equated perfect markets with free markets. I’m not really sure how to reponds to this. Quoting him:
> Theoretically, a free market should “theoretically” tend to be a perfect market. > A free market should be a market free of any insider or outsider influence. > A free market tends to deregulation or no regulations at all.
Of course the last sentence is nonsense as is the rest I’m sure, but what should I tell him?
I almost thought that the guy was trying to debunk you with the perfect competition model, but I really can’t tell what he’s talking about. I’d just ask him some questions to try to figure out what he’s getting at.
It seems to suggest that a ‘market’ is something in which no people are involved. products are just lying around waiting for no one to want them and no one to sell them.
A perfect strawman of something unusable, nonexistent, and so easily refutable. Or some Platonic ideal. The minute anyone is introduced into a market situation, then, it is equivalent to ‘intervention’. And so all intervention is roughly equivalent.
And influence is not clear. It seems to be hiding the gun in the room by not using the word ‘force’. And again making equivications: influence is the same as force. Which is ludicrous.
For if the president tells me not to buy beer and leaves it up to me, he is influencing my decision perhaps. That is quite different than if the president makes a law incarcerating people who buy beer. Which is influence, but also something in addition. Just like if someone wants something and asks it is different than if they pull a knife out and ask. As women will attest, sex is a different experience than rape. The type of influence: being drugged, being at knife point or gunpoint, or simply agreeing consensually makes a hell of a difference.