Here is a scenario that sometimes gets brought up that I don’t know howto answer fully, but I understand is likely a very simple scenario to answer:
Suppose I was a drug dealer and I took a bunch of drug here and put it in wrappers and gave it out to children for free, what could be done against me? Assuming we all agree it is moral to do so.
First off, I have to ponder incentives. There is of course the possibility I’m a sicko, but otherwise the only incentive would be that these kids could be addicted early and that gets me customers. However, where would kids get enough money to buy it once they did get addicted anyway? Especially since their parents would find out inevitably. If I only sold it in exchange for their lunch money I would likely run at such a loss it wouldn’t be economically prosperous for me to do so (and far too risky). Speaking of parents, where would they come in during all of this? I imagine parents don’t want their children getting hooked on drugs, and since kids live on their parents’ property and off their resources, they would be forced to give up the drugs because the parents don’t want it involved in their living space. If someone younger than eighteen were able to achieve economic self-sufficiency (silly, perhaps, but as a hypothetical lets go with it) it wouldn’t matter.
Secondly, most kids would not take drugs up front, they’re usually taught not to accept drugs or talk to strange (wo)men. So, the drug dealer would have to disguise it as candy, would he not? On a night like tonight, for instance. This would make it fraud and therefore a criminal action, wouldn’t it? Seeing as the child goes to the house expecting candy, but gets something else that is hurtful for him/her, this would undeniably be fraud, right?
Is there more to this scenario than I see it, or have I hit the nail on the head? I want to do my best to create the strongest arguments possible for cases such as this.