Hello to everyone in the Mises community.
My question concerns a problem that seems to undermine the long-term stability of a commodity-backed currency (such as a gold standard).
First, suppose that we had a gold standard. Why would anyone want to actually own any gold at all? Aside from its practical uses in jewelry, electronics, etc., most of its value derives from the fact that people demand it as a medium of exchange. In other words, the vast majority of gold is not be consumed, but rather stored away with the expectation that it can be later traded for something of “actual” value (that is, something that can be used/consumed by an individual). Thus, to speak of gold having “intrinsic value” is misleading because its market value is far greater than what it would be if we did not have a gold standard.
Next, realize that people will always want to borrow gold at interest because they value the goods that can be purchased with that amount of gold in the present, more than they value the goods that can be purchased with a greater amount of gold in the future. The interest rate will always be positive because otherwise the lender might as well stash the gold away, and so they would have no incentive to lend.
So if you are possession of some gold, you can either spend it, lend it, or stash it. Nobody would choose to stash it when they can lend it at interest, so that option is out. But when you spend or lend the gold, the buyer or borrower who just received your gold is faced with the same set of choices, and for the same reason they would want to get rid of the gold as quickly as possible in order to maximize its usefulness.
Murray Rothbard explained why people would want to own cash (in this case, gold) as follows: “…the desire to keep a cash balance stems from fundamental uncertainty as to the right time for making purchases, whether of capital or of consumers’ goods” (Man, Economy, and State). However, a stash of cash provides no hedge against uncertainty that cannot also be provided by loans that are made for arbitrarily short periods of time (such as days, hours, or minutes).
Therefore, everyone would have an incentive to reduce the amount of time in which they are in actual possession of gold. In past ages, this time interval may have been quite long because of the physical constraints of acquiring and transporting gold, but in the modern age it can be reduced practically to zero by using electronic transactions. Thus, the velocity of money will increase without end, making gold useless as money.
All of this means that if competing currencies are allowed, then the gold standard would ultimately not be the market’s choice.
Are there are any flaws in this analysis? If you can enlighten me more about this issue, I would appreciate your input.