First off, the “Hayekian Triangle” in Prices and Production is linear due to two critical assumptions.
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“The amount of original factors applied during successive stages of the process is constant” (Footnote 44 of Lecture 2; Page 231 of my Mises Institute edition of P&P, - if you have another edition it’s the long footnote with the integral in it)
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Hayek “intentionally neglected interest” in that lecture (p. 231 of my Mises Institute edition as well).
So, if we imagine that the only input is labour (which Hayek often does), which is continually applied over time in a production process AT A CONSTANT RATE, then the slope of the Hayekian triangle should, in this simplified model, be equal to the wage rate. So, yeah, I can see why one could be confused by the relationship between the interest rate and the Hayekian triangle. In it’s original presentation, THERE WAS NO INTEREST RATE (You get to that in lecture 3, I believe, and by then he stops using triangles).
To double check why the Hayekian triangle should grow linearly with a slope equal to the wage rate, let’s think of time discretely (in days) as an approximation of how the Hayekian triangle works in continuous time. Suppose stage one of some process takes one day, uses one unit of labour, and that the wage rate per day per unit of labour is a dollar; if the interest rate is zero (I use interest synonymously with accounting profit here), then the value of the intermediate good produced by that unit of labour better be a dollar (If it’s less, the interest rate is negative; if it’s more, then there IS interest). As we jump to the next stage of production, one would need to spend another dollar on another unit of labour, and then spend another dollar purchasing the intermediate products produced at stage one. As long as interest is still assumed to be zero, then the value of the intermediate goods produced at this stage (2) is 2 dollars. Obviously, stage 3 goods will be worth $3, and so on. I hope you get the idea.
When Hayek DOES account for interest (See either Pure Theory of Capital or the much underrated “Relationship Between Investment and Output”), then the “triangle” is not necessarily a straight line. If labour input application is constant, but the rate of interest is positive, then the triangle should have an exponential slope (Why? To account for the “profit” or “interest” earned at each stage of production).
Now, Daniel also asked whether the “triangle” need be a triangle. I assume that are wondering whether the value of the capital stock could decrease at later stages of production, so you end up with, well… a sort of curvy line moving up and down. Well, I can answer this question somewhat simply if we assume all capital goods are “goods in process”; i.e. unfinished goods on their way to becoming final output (for example, not yet fully matured wine). Suppose later stages of production require very little labour, and early stages require lots of labour (as you were considering). Even then, you will get a sort of “triangular” shape, since the later stages of production need to purchase the “capital” (or goods in process) produced by the earlier stages to continue the production chain. Therefore, to have a constant rate of profit or interest prevailing in the system, the value of the goods produced at the later stages of production need to be greater than the value of those produced at earlier stages. So, in this case, you will always have a sort of triangular shape. Or put differently, if time is the x-axis, and value is the y-axis, the slope will always be positive.
However, if durable capital goods are used in production, is the Haykian triangle still a “triangle” then? Well; here’s where things get tricky, for now we must think about how we are to “time date” an input’s “investment period” to accurately draw our Hayekian triangle.
Now this is an abstract point, but bear with me. Hayek defines investment period as “the interval between the application of a unit of input and the maturing of the quantity of output due to that input” (Pure Theory of Capital, p. 69). In a goods in process model, this is easy to specify; it’s the amount of time that passes between, say, unit of labour crushing or picking some grapes, and when the wine from those grapes matures and is sold. But if one imagines a production process involving, say, a durable machine, then the time relationship is not so simple as it was in the goods in process model; a unit of labour is responsible for output at many FUTURE dates, and therefore may have many different investment periods.
The concept of “investment period” turns out to be crucial to Hayek’s triangular construction. Basically, “time” in the Hayekian triangle is not really “time” per se, but rather the “investment period” of various units of input. So, to even draw a Hayekian triangle you need to solve a really funny sort of imputation problem, where, given the value of each capital good and input, you determine how long a moment in time’s input SHOULD be invested to allow for compound interest to be earned on all units of input invested for x units of time. More briefly, this is simply another way of dealing with the commonly quoted problem with Austrian Capital Theory; which production processes are “early” stages, and which production processes are “late” stages. For more detail on this, you’ll probably want to just consult Pure Theory of Capital, but for what my opinion is worth, I think Hayek does, come up with a technically consistent way to deal with the problem (I could be wrong though). Not sure if it would help much in statistical applications though, since Hayek is dealing with an idealized stationary state.
On that note, for all intensive purposes, I think the Hayekian triangle should be thought of as a goods in process model only. You can bring durable goods in if you like, but if you want it to be a consistent model, it is not going to be mathematically tractable, or at the very least, it confuses more than it illuminates.
One final note; Garisson has straight line Hayekian triangles, not exponential Hayekian triangles, even though he does account for interest. This is because he assumes simple interest, not compound interest, rules in the system.