Alright before I tell you what I need help understanding let me give you a little context. In another forum we were discussing the possibility of market anarchy. Now one person responded by saying market anarchy cannot possibly work because:
“Governments emerge and exist within societies. They’re expressions of society’s “will.” Infinite ways for society to express its will is the corollary of societies’ systemic, temporal, subjective nature.”
I responded with:
“If the state truly was an expression of “societies will” then why do we pay taxes and not dues? In other words if “society” desires a state that bad why must the state expropriate its funds instead of receiving them voluntarily like any other legitimate business has to?”
and
“How can society have a “will” anyways if society is just an abstraction, a concept used in speech to help others better grasp what we are talking about. If only individuals have wills and in a particular geographical location the individuals who made up a society truly wanted a state would the state not emerge voluntarily? In other words in actual government based on consent and not force?”
Now the person who I posed the question to hasn’t responded yet but someone else has and he seems to be on the same page with the first person i quoted. He wrote:
"Leaving aside the whole possibility of material culture as an integral part of our mind, or a social subjective conciousness, and hence will and agency, beyond the corporeal individual (because it’s mostly metaphysical and barely pertinent. Not because I don’t think the assertion can be made)…
There are plenty of things which are a function of society, it’s historical development and subjective nature, which aren’t a conscious, consenual production of the individual constituents.
For instance, social hierarchy, segregation and taboo."
What does this person mean by the bolded? And does he have a point? Sorry but Im just totally lost.