We have never seen Rothbardian (or Friedmanian for that matter) anarcho-capitalism in the world before now. Why is that?
In the past, agricultural societies were especially vulnerable to predation. The earliest states formed as people voluntarily sought protection against this predation. States, such as the Roman Empire, were the most successful at advancing culture and civilization. Therefore, in the past, anarcho-capitalism wasn’t viable, since it never made a significant dent and was not able to survive in a world surrounded by aggressive states and barbarians.
In the first half of the 20th century, and this is just a hunchism on my part, but I believe that if the USA had already been anarcho-capitalist and without nuclear weapons, it would not have been able to withstand the pressure of three aggressive totalitarian regimes: Nazi Germany, the USSR, and the PRC. They would have been able to bully the US (or, since this is an anarcho-capitalist society, the territory formerly known as the US) around.
At one point can anarcho-capitalism finally emerge and stand on its own, practically speaking? It is one thing to acknowledge it as most economically efficient system and as the most moral system for humans, but the universe respects power, not morals. How can anarcho-capitalism acquire the necessary power to defend itself against external predation and threats in today’s world?
One flaw I find with the PDA superior efficiency argument is that if it were true, states would never have formed in the first place. Obviously, something else is missing from that argument. Is the formation of a state inevitable to protect against superior force? It looks like that way when we analyze the past. Let’s discuss.
P.S. I’ll reply later with my own response to this question, but I want to discuss, first ![]()