I’m pretty sure this passage just threw me in the opposite direction and convinced me of natural rights. Saying that rights don’t exist because men can be deprived of them is like saying that life doesn’t exist because men can be killed.
There are a million different reasons for human rights that obey NAP, your quote proves nothing. You also can’t have a government if you believe in a humans right to property because in order to exist the government must forcibly take the money of law abiding citizens forcibly, this is theft and should be treated as such
That’s not what the text says. The text says that for (the assumed) rights to have any meaningful function other agents/institutions have to be in place.
If there are so many reasons, why not name a few. You are basically claiming what you got to prove.
Property rights only make sense under the following conditions:
You are not the only human on the planet/island. There is a potential that someone else can come into dispute with over the object the property right is claimed for.
There are means or an agency to defend a claim on property.
No. I am referring to the demonstration, not the dialectical ‘asking’.
As in Prior Anayltics by Aristotle commented upon by Robin Smith:
“In modern use, the expressions ‘arguing in a circle’ and ‘begging the question’ are roughly interchangeable, which may contribute to our own inability to see that these are, for Aristotle, completely different things. A circular deduction for him is an extended structure of deductions in which each presmise also appears as a conclusion… He tells us, there, that circular proof is just proving that ‘when A is, then A is’…”
Human rights belong to human beings by definition.
Here you are speaking only to claim rights rather than liberty rights. Claim rights imply an obligation, while liberty rights do not. The “ought to have” statements is superfluous. I also think the obligations of government are debatable, just as the existence of government.
These conditions are your presupposition, and have yet to be proven.
The lack of others obligated to recognize a property right does not disqualify the existence of the right.
This point is incorrect. The is no requirement for government to even exist in order to have property rights.
The conditions are flawed. The fact you state is irrelevant. Without your conditions, the rights are simply uncontested.
First, uncontested rights don’t equate to nonexistence of rights. Second, even if this flawed reasoning were true, you’re not able to apply it to the real world because you’d be violating your own preconditions your entire conclusion is based on.
Wrong. The sky is blue (based on an optical effect). There are certain conditions which make that statement false - such as night or under overcast conditions. You can’t then simply claim therefore a blue sky cannot exist.
I think he’s thinking of circular reasoning, which has been linked to fallacy, whether correctly or not. To most, ‘A is A’ is referred to as the identity axiom.
I know what he is talking about. He distinctly brought up something different than what I was referring to.
Angurse is correct in that “begging the question” is a fallacy. I wasn’t talking about begging the question though. It was a simple misunderstanding, no big deal.
yes, that is the identity axiom, but I was specifically discussing the deduction of premises through identity being known also as circular proof “when A is, then A is”.
That human rights don’t exist, doesn’t mean that the existence of other types of rights isn’t possible. To me all forms of rights have to be cultural by there very nature. They are basically a convention people agree (or disagree) on. Property rights are I think I can agree on, although I won’t consider them as absolute as some do here.
Unless you meant a different circular proof, I certainly did misinterpret you. But In Posterior Anaylitics, Aristotle tried to solve the the regress problem by denying the assumptions on which it depends. And re-read what I said (different species are not the same thing). Human rights cannot be proven to exist via A is A, as it completely avoids the question “does A even exist?”
Well the classical argument for human rights is that it is self evident that people have rights. I find that a little shaky but in the end all answers or explinations always half to come out of self evident assumptions or “because”. You could also take stefan molyneux’s argument for the universal prefferability of human rights as opposed to a lack thereof. I personally find humans important becuase in a world of chaos and random events there are beings who produce logical actions.
Yes there is a need for an agency to defend rights but this can’t exist if it directly contradicts human rights as states do.
as I said and quoted - yes “different” (circular proof).
good day sir
edit: I clarified above and erased “circular proof” from my original statement cause I was talking about something different than begging the question, which I haven’t ever come across begging the question also having the name circular proof. I erased the original posting here for clarity’s sake and left in parenthesis what was originally present before this edit.
You, I, Nor anyone else will ever experience isolation from humans. We are born of our mothers. This statement is redundant.
The means is your body and mind.
Property rights make sense then. Your conditions are met. Next question. Is your body your property? If it is, do property rights apply to it? If they do can we say those are the first property rights a human enjoys?
Too many questions to be asked. Bad proof try again
The concept of human rights/individual rights/natural rights is libertarian. The social democrats/UN have partially hijacked ‘human rights’ but that doesn’t mean that the original concept is invalid.