Allow me to “jump in” and provide my own ramblings to the topic of abortion. I am going to assume that all of us here take self ownership as a moral axiom. From this point we get the principal of non-aggression, which allows us to make moral/ethical judgments on the relationship between self-owners (since governments are essentially a group of individuals, but never mind).
Now, when do we possess or attain self-ownership? That is the question that has been dancing unnoticed through these series of posts. I assert that self-ownership is attained at (using the same argument Hoppe takes) the “objectification” of the will.
But when do we obtain the rights associated with self-ownership? Rothbard comments “Every baby as soon as it is born and is therefore no longer contained within his mother’s body possesses the right of self-ownership by virtue of being a separate entity and a potential adult.” Rothbard obviously uses the potential for self-ownership as actual attainment of the rights associated with self-ownership. In order to fully grasp the implications of this we must go further than, as Rothbard does, the act of birth. Potential undeniably begins with conception.
The rest of my argument extends from my belief that the unborn are self-owners, based on the argument of potential. After accepting this, the topic of abortion becomes a question of relationship between two self-owners. The two major arguments that have been presented so far are:
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The mother is in some sort of implicit contract and must be deemed subservient to the fetus.
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Or, the fetus is a parasite, living upon a self-owner.
I’ll have to hurry up and post, I’m running a bit late for a meeting, but I want to conclude with two thoughts.
I find that if we take the implications of self-ownership to their end. An act of abortion can not be anything more than eviction; anything else would trample the rights of the other self-owner. This deems as philosophically immoral most of the abortions that take place today (which include direct harm to a self-owner).
Another thought, if we do not take the potential of self-ownership as possessing the rights associated with it, then when does one attain those rights. And, if they are not self-owners, then children (post birth) can be aggressed against, as we would a wild animal. Thus, up until the rights associated with self ownership are obtained, the aggression against an entity (not belonging to someone else) cannot be condemned. Thus my questions to all of you is, “When do we possess or attain the rights associated with self ownership?”