If objective morality doesnt exist, what justifies libertarianism?

yes it is.

never said it did.

I haven’t said otherwise. And since you say “also” then at least you agree with what my initial comment was.

You could.

Yeap. I’m glad you realize this.

I don’t know what you are saying here.

Do you mean everything I experience, or just what I experience in relation to thinking without words? I don’t think all of what I or anyone experiences can be fully put into words (at least not in practice), but I assume everyone agrees with that. As for my experience of “thinking without words,” I can put it (roughly) into words: I think in images, sounds, and other sensations.

I see two positive things:

First, social theories rely on an underlying theory of consciousness, and the theories can only be as strong and as consistent as the underlying theory of consciousness. We either take the theories of consciousness that are lying around out there in the culture, or that other scholars have provided, or we construct our own. Either way, our social theories hinge and depend on theories of consciousness. So it is important not to shy away from the study of consciousness. The law of marginal utility says something about the way a consciousness experiences the acquisition of a unit of supply. The idea of subjective value deals with consciousness…

When Mises writes:

“We must bethink ourselves and reflect upon the structure of human action. Like logic and mathematics, praxeological knowledge is in us; it does not come from without.”

He is essentially talking about an analysis of consciousness.

When he writes:

“The importance of phenomenology for the solution of the epistemological problems of praxeology has not been noticed at all.”

He is saying that phenomenology, as an approach to the understanding of consciousness, has important things to add to praxeology, and that people haven’t noticed this. (how many contemporary Austrian social thinkers cite phenomenology ?)

Alfred Schutz, in The Phenomenology of the Social World, tried to bring phenomenology to the aid of praxeology.

Thus, I believe AJ, in pursuing a more rigorous understanding of consciousness, is taking up the true program of praxeology.

Here is something I wrote previously:

"Mises knew that social science is closely related to our understanding of the human mind. For social science to progress, new approaches to understanding the human mind are needed, and these approaches amount to theories of consciousness. The social scientist or social thinker is understandably cautious when it comes to the subject of consciousness, because of the apparent complexity of consciousness. The danger in embarking on a theory of consciousness lies in the possibility of failure.

Husserl writes:

“On the single-mindedness and purity of the “phenomenological” attitude depends entirely the consistency or absurdity of the investigations that are here to be carried out.”[1]

Mises writes:

“The method of imaginary constructions is indispensable for praxeology; it is the only method of praxeological and economic inquiry. It is, to be sure, a method difficult to handle because it can easily result in fallacious syllogisms. It leads along a sharp edge; on both sides yawns the chasm of absurdity and nonsense. Only merciless self-criticism can prevent a man from falling headlong into these abysmal depths.”[2]

Though failure is possible, to refrain from treating the subject of consciousness is to cede the realm of consciousness to the philosophers of naturalism and egalitarianism. And thus if we desire that libertarian theories eventually triumph over the theories of coercion, the philosophers of liberty have no choice but to construct theories of consciousness that compliment rather than contradict the cause of human liberty."


[1] Essay: “Philosophy as Rigorous Science.”

[2] Human Action, 237.

The second thing I see, is that AJ’s short sketch is rendered in terms of methodological individualism. We know at any point of the analysis, which consciousness’s point of view we are speaking of, A or B. This is important for clarity of thinking.

Thank you for your explanation. This is really an awesome idea. I really liked the way in which your related it to filmmakers and musicians and artists, etc… that is really a powerful observation. It would just be a more advanced way for people to convey their feelings, I get it now. I am an technology enthusiast myself, so thank you for sharing.

I was actually more worried about my own reasoning, I didn’t mean to convey that you were trying to say that reading others people minds was the same thing as experiencing their conscious experience.

Wilderness,

This will be my final response to you concerning this matter.

It was you who initially responded to me, if you didn’t intend to discuss the topic at hand perhaps you should have been a little more courteous and stayed out.

Note: Follow the chain, you inevitably bring up the semantics of “natural” in reply to my specific (and obvious) use of the term natural law. If you didn’t intend to discuss natural law, then it shouldn’t have been introduced its just a big non-sequitar. My arguing after assumed you were trying to be on topic which seems pretty reasonable (given that you replied to me).

I don’t necessarily disagree with this. I think it is an important line of inquiry…

Ah, I see. I’m talking off-topic for sure then. If this is too far from the topic here, I certainly welcome further discussion in the Mises Lounge or another thread perhaps.

Everything you experience, but not all experience is words. That’s a given. Words are apart of our experience - so - everything we experience includes words, feelings, skin, etc…

I don’t know about this. I think I can put everything I experience into words, BUT what is key is, my words are not the full experience. Sometimes an event is full of inspiration. I just put that into words. That doesn’t necessarily mean though that the words are transferring, as a medium, the exact inspiration I experienced. But I was able to put into words that I experienced inspiration.

my meditation experience for over ten years has been zazen so therefore it’s not accurately called meditation. More accurately called zazen. I experience words too, but also images, sounds, etc…

Oh that’s great, because I thought I was kind of butting in with a very tangential, loosely related idea (one that I’m always eager to talk about but never get the chance). I am not sure how any of my ideas may apply to the discussion at hand, so I’m going to hold my tongue on the libertarian theory side of things for the moment.

I would certainly like to hear any thought for or against. This has always been my No. 1 area of interest. I never really understood the notion that people think in words, and never hear it discussed anywhere, but I’ve frequently got the feeling that people generally assume “thoughts=words.”

No. It was you that had initially responded to questioning if natural meant intellect. I have pointed that out to you and have copied and pasted what the initial response was that I am referring to at least a couple times now. You linked me to a very brief discussion that we had on Obama and feelings. Nothing about the semantics of natural had come up then. Obviously we are not talking about Obama and feelings. We are currently talking about the semantics of natural.

This is my experience as well.

Interesting. That makes sense actually.

Maybe it will be useful if I can think of some kind of logical reasoning that can be performed purely through images. Although it will be difficult, what I want to show is that our (at least my) internal “language” (the elements of meaning when I reason within the confines of my own mind) is quite different from the external language we speak (e.g., English). Of course, I also use English when reasoning within my own mind, and may use it virtually always, out of habit, but I want to show that this is merely an overlay on the thoughts (kind of like yellow sticky notes), not the fundamental unit of thought itself (which may be no one’s position, but I’m not sure because I’ve never heard this discussed before).

I think that there are definitely philosophers that have made this assumption that thoughts and words are equivalent. Many theories also contain assumptions that thoughts are not actions, but of course Austrian Theory says that thought falls under the category of human action. The context here between thoughts and words seems to be that thoughts are actions and words are something of the material world. So in my view, from the perspective of Methodological Individualism, the fundamental aspect of thought is action, not words. So I think I agree with you.

And to be clear. What I mean be “exact inspiration” is the word inspiration is not the feeling inspiration as well as not a dreamy, visual inspiration. All potential mediums of the same event. This is why I said eariler in this thread that the intellect realizes, but it’s not necessarily the origin of what is or it can be depending on the nature of what it is being defined.

Your right. A particular thought may not have originated with thought in and of itself. Thought can have varying mediums too if thought is strictly defined as what passes through my mind. This doesn’t exclude what my heart communicates to my mind. My mind though would need to use a different medium other than feelings if the mind in the skull is going to communicate what those feelings are on it’s terms - the mind in my skull’s terms. Now a thought can originate outside of the mind. Feelings or trees. And then the thought in my mind-skull may try varying mediums to communicate and quite possibly inspire a tingle in the heart of another. Thoughts can influence the heart and the heart can influence the mind.

And to be clear. When I say “a thought can originate outside of the mind(-skull)”, what I’m saying is not the thought in and of itself is originating outside, etc… I am saying what the thought, as a medium, is communicating - the content of the communication - may originate outside the mind-skull.

Tying this back into the OP, Nandor asked:

If objective morality doesn’t exist, what justifies libertarianism?

His question is, if objective ethics are considered faulty (nonesensical, contradictory, whatever…), then what is the rational basis for libertarianism or libertarian ethics?

In other words, if no objective ethics, then how libertarianism?

And the answer is: because of the nature of consciousness; what Mises referred to as the logical structure of the human mind.

Objective ethics, in some sense, tries to conceive things in the following way:

(X is the nature of objective reality)…(and therefore Y is what I should do)

The two correlates are:

  1. the nature of objective reality (conceived as independent of any individual consciousness)

and

  1. the action I should therefore take.

And Nandor’s question implies that if this program doesn’t work, then libertarianism or libertarian ethics may not work. Actually, this is the fundamental grounding assumption of objective and normative ethics.

But there are correlates that objective ethicists haven’t considered, and these are the fundamental correlates of consciousness. Essentially, those correlates reduce to happiness and unhappiness, but that is getting into another topic.

You can see the correlates of consciousness in Menger’s law of marginal utility:

(if a consciousness comes into possession of an additional unit)…(then this consciousness experiences a decrease in a unit’s value)

You can see the correlates of consciousness in early Hayek:

“…the data which formed the starting point for the tautological transformations of the Pure Logic of Choice. There “data” meant those facts, and only those facts, which were present in the mind of the acting person, and only this subjective interpretation of the term “datum” made those propositions necessary truths.” “Datum” meant given, known, to the person under consideration."

Hayek, in referring to several facts present in the mind of the acting person, is referring to correlates of consciousness.

So in an important way, an analysis of consciousness is pertinent to Nandor’s original question.

If the primary correlates of libertarianism and libertarian ethics are not [objective reality] and [the ought implied by objective reality], then what are the primary correlates of libertarianism and libertarian ethics?

The answer is: the primary correlates of libertarianism and libertarian ethics are correlates of consciousness.

Switching back on topic for a moment, I think what you say here may depend on whether materialism is true or not, as well as what makes us “us.” If we experience everything another person is experiencing, that means we also experience the sensation of having their same memories, for example. In some sense, then, fully experiencing what it is like to be another person may make us actually “be” that other person. In this, we have to watch for semantics, because what does it really mean to “be” someone, or to “be” ourselves. I suggest that the concept of “being” may prove too vague for our purposes - which would be expected, as such words were not coined to handle such situations. Example:

http://instruct.westvalley.edu/lafave/where_am_i.html

In this science fiction shortstory, a man’s brain is removed from his body and put in a vat. Transmitters attached to the brain and into the guy’s empty skull relay all the neural messages to the man’s body by radio. In the following excerpt, despite what the author says, it’s clear to me that the question “Where am I?” no longer functions reliably given the character’s situation. I want to point out, then, that words can appear to mean something perfectly definite and obvious, but in fact they often don’t mean anything at all in the given context.

Not all may agree with this, but Mises realized it:

“…thinking itself an action, proceeding step by step from the less satisfactory state of insufficient cognition to the more satisfactory state of better insight.”

(Human Action, V. Time as a Praxeological Factor, 3rd rev. ed. p.99)

Adam,

I’ve advocated for some time, influenced by discussions and readings before I ever found this forum, to side-step around objective and subjective. In context these concepts are ok due to the contexts explanatory power to prop these terms up better (by better I mean provide more meaning). Cause an emphasis on either one may, at times, exclude the other too much. What I mean is consciousness can realize something. Even if consciousness is realizing itself. So even if what is realized is a consciousness particle, for instance, a tree out there has to be a conscious particle for me to achieve realization (consciousness) of the tree, in other words, even if there is a purely consciousness plane and that’s how all communication and realization happens it is still a tree I am being conscious of and that tree didn’t originate in my mind-skull (my consciousness). That’s what I think.

edit: I also think, if I remember correctly, this idea I mulled here is also called dependent origination.

edit edit: I briefly looked it up. Yes that is what I am talking about. I do remember correctly.

yes. thought is a specie of human action.