I want to see how the community here of mises.org “breaks down” in terms of ethical affiliation. From what I’ve seen it seems as though most people here believe in something resembling Rothbard’s idea of natural rights with a few non-cognitivist moral nihilists and and even fewer objectivists. I happen to be a non-cognitivist. So, what about you guys?
Out of those choices, I would classify myself as an Objectivist, but I disagree with Rand on more than a few things. I do think the subject of morality needs to be explored/explained more than most natural rights and Objectivist thinkers have to date.
My views on ethics may at least partly resemble a form of pragmatism. I’m not a moral nihilist, but I don’t believe in natural rights either. I support the concept of rights as a politically enforcible realm of ethics. I don’t think ethics needs a metaphysical foundation to be an epistemologically valid and meaningful realm of discourse, and I think normativity is an inescapable element of all domains of knowledge that cannot be disentangled.
I am a Misesian utilitarian.
My $0.02:
Every moral system depends on one or more premises. At least one premise must concern something being immoral. Strictly speaking, premises cannot be provided by logic itself, so they are accepted or rejected on non-logical grounds – emotions, instincts, etc.
I personally believe that nearly all human beings are born equipped with certain “moral instincts” that arose through evolution. Our conscious moral systems are our attempts at understanding and making sense of them.
So in one sense, you could say I’m a moral nihilist. But in another, I’m a natural-rights theorist. My personal morality follows from the Non-Aggression Principle.
The premise that underlies every discussion of ethics is that of self ownership and peaceful interaction. It’s contradictory to convince me that I don’t own myself while you engage with me in a voluntary debate that presumes I have self ownership.
This is why I believe that natural rights are objectively true and ought to be followed by every person.
"Nevertheless, by coming out with a genuinely new theory (amazing in itself, considering the long history of political philosophy) Hoppe is in danger of offending all the intellectual vested interests of the libertarian camp. Utilitarians, who should be happy that value freedom was preserved, will be appalled to find that Hoppean rights are even more absolutist and “dogmatic” than natural rights. Natural rightsers, while happy at the “dogmatism” will be unwilling to accept an ethics not grounded in the board nature of things. Randians will be particularly upset on the satantic immanual kant and his “synthetic a priori”.
Randians might be mollified, however, to learn that Hoppe is influence by a group of German Kantians (headed by mathematician Paul Lorenzen) who interpret Kant as a deeply realistic Aristotelian, in contrast to the Idealist interpretation common in the U. S.
As a natural rightser, I don’t see any real contradiction here, or why one cannot hold to both the natural rights and the Hoppean rights ethic at the same time. Both rights ethics, after all, are grounded, like the realist version of Kantianism, in the nature of reality. Natural law, too, provides a personal and social ethic apart from libertarianism; this is an area Hoppe is not concerned with." - MNR, pg2
Does the “Misesian” qualification add any specific distinctions?
If not, it still sounds cooler.
I’m a moral nihilist. I argue for anarcho-capitalism using welfarist (e.g., wealth-maximization, consequentialism) rhetoric.
It isn’t just a qualification to normal utilitarianism, but is actually totally different.
If it were “totally different,” then it would no longer need to be called utilitarian. It’d be a bit absurd to claim that a term like “Rothbardian libertarian” is totally different from normal libertarianism; it’s, instead, a qualification.
But, rather than quibbling on that issue, could you enlighten me on what the philosophy actually is?
While I have great respect for Hoppe and his argumentation ethics, I see it as being necessarily limited to arguments. In other words, why would I need to convince that you don’t own yourself when I can just steal your stuff, beat you, and/or shoot you?
Furthermore, even if denying self-ownership leads to a logical contradiction, that in no way means that violating self-ownership is necessarily wrong.
“In other words, why would I need to convince that you don’t own yourself when I can just steal your stuff, beat you, and/or shoot you?”
Are you going to claim that your actions are justified? If not, well congrats - then you’d at least be consistent… all the way to jail or whatever the PDA is going to do with you [via their clients wishes of course]. Are you going to continue to initiate violence? Well then you’ll probably end up dead in a gutter. (And if you’ve shot & killed someone who is innoceant, that’s probably where you belong)
“My entire argument, then, claims to be an impossibility proof. But not, as the mentioned critics seem to think, a proof that means to show the impossibility of certain empirical events so that it could be refuted, by empirical evidence. Instead, it is a proof that it is impossible to propositionally justify non-libertarian principles without falling into contradictions.”
For whatever such a thing is worth (and I’ll come to this shortly), it should be clear that empirical evidence has absolutely no bearing on it. So what if there is slavery, the Gulag, taxation? The proof concerns the issue that claiming such institutions can be justified, involves a performative contradiction. It is purely intellectual in nature, like logical, mathematical, or praxeological proofs." - [Hoppe](http://www.hanshoppe.com/wp-content/uploads/publications/liberty_symposium.pdf pg 8), pg 8
Ah, so der gute Professor is right there with me. +1 internet for him! ![]()
Still, the thrust of my question was that a person doesn’t have to convince others that his moral system is correct in order for him to act on it. And again, are violations of self-ownership inherently and necessarily wrong?
Edit: I see you edited your own post.
This is entirely separate from proving that violations of self-ownership are inherently and necessarily wrong. I think you’re making an argumentum ad baculum here.
How so?
To put it as concisely as possible, for most people, self-interest should lead to social-interest. For most people, dividing labor is more efficient than not, which means that, for most people, other people doing well means them doing well. You should want other people in society to do well, simply because you want to do well. No matter how far away somebody lives, how low their social status is, how poor they are, how annoying they are, how stupid they are, and so on, if they are in the division of labor, they are helping you. It isn’t anything other than this which led to us having compassion for total strangers.
"Still, the thrust of my question was that a person doesn’t have to convince others that his moral system is correct in order for him to act on it. "
And I answered it.
“This is entirely separate from proving that violations of self-ownership are inherently and necessarily wrong.”
Are you claiming that you have a right to threaten or initiate physical aggression?
“I think you’re making an argumentum ad baculum here.”
Think better. Think punishment theory, estoppel approach.
I don’t know about natural rights, I am sort of undecided. I am only slightly more about ethics then utility, I have always thought that a good ideology aligns both together. I like Friedman over Rothbard in some aspects.
Ryan; how does this differ from ‘normal utilitarianism’? I’m relatively aware of Mises his vision of utilitarianism. What I fail to see is how this is so radically different from traditional utilitarianism. It’s different from act-utilitarianism, for sure. But rule-utilitarianism didn’t originate with Mises, but has a firm historical relevance. I don’t see Misesian utilitarianism to be that radically different to be honest.
I agree that you provided a response to my question. However, I don’t see how that response answered it. You haven’t given me a reason why one needs to convince another person that aggression is okay (i.e. not morally wrong) before engaging in aggression against that other person.
I am personally claiming no such thing. Just so we’re clear.
What I’m saying is that the evaluation of (particular) violations of self-ownership as right or wrong cannot be proven correct. The evaluation is entirely subjective. Does that make better sense?
Is there a need to slip in an ad hominem argument there? Have I made any against you?
Sorry but I’m not familiar with punishment theory of the estoppel approach thereof. I’ll look over that paper when I have time. Thanks for linking to it.
Anyway, my point was that you seemed to be arguing that “it is true that X is wrong because, if you were to commit X, you would be punished for doing so”. If I’m not making a straw man here, then this argument is a classic form of the argumentum ad baculum, which is a kind of argumentum ad consequentiam.