Has anyone ever defined “mixing your labour” with an object? It seems vital to neo-lockean property theory.
I had a quick scan and what I seem to come across is :-
(1)changing the elements of the object means you come to own it- Rothbard & Locke
or
should we more think of it (2)as first use?
or(3) both?
Trade is not problematic in this since it is a transfer from an original appriopriater to someone else.It’s only original appriopriation that becomes confusing.
Examples:-
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If I pick a wild rose in unowned land how do I mix my labour with it and so own it? here (1) seems insuffiecient for ownership.
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With eminent domain whereby someone’s garden say is taken to have a shop built on it ,it seems obvious the original owner owns the land on which the shop is built.But do they own the shop too? Afterall the shop is built on the stolen land but on the otherhand the person did not steal the shop they built it legitimately? how do you solve such a dilemmna?
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If I find a chair(and assume I know it’s unowned having been abandonded) how do I come to own it? again here (1) doesn’t seem to suffice yet (2) would work perfectly.
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Hoppe, Kinsella,Block etc say you cannot own values in property yet I’ve noticed something somewhat contradictory.Rothbard in Law property rights and air pollution implies the first person on a piece of land or in an area has ‘homesteaded’ the right to create smoke or fumes which pass from X’s garden’s barbeque into Y’s garden.It seems to me one of these positions must go which is lucky really since homesteading a right to let fumes pass into others garden seems problematic.However this leaves us with what to do in such an example.
Can anyone help me clear up these confusions? or even point out errors?