Is there a such thing as market failure?

There has been some fairly thorough discussion on this here. It depends heavily upon what one means, there are certainly cases which would be considered failures from the point of view of Mises’ concept of “consumer’s sovereignty”, but by Rothbard’s concept of “Individual Sovereignty” then the only way that market failure could result is if an interaction was forceful and fraudulent and/or this situation wasn’t rectified.