In the original post of a recent thread on this forum, Neoclassical asked whether we “believe in market failure” or not. He didn’t define it. He just asked whether we “believe in” it or not.
Most of the responses at least in the beginning showed that they had no idea what Neoclassical meant when he used the term, though he decided to go ahead and accuse them of dogmatism and so on anyway, using the reasonableness of what his definition was as the criterion.
The definition that he eventually gave, which everyone seemed to ignore for the next few pages, came from a speech by David Friedman, the relevant part of which I have transcribed below:
One of the most common arguments that Austrian School economists make when they are talking about politics is that cartels are unsustainable on a free market because it is always in the individual self-interest of all of them to cheat on the cartel. It is in the same self-interest to drop their price slightly below the cartel price and make tons of profits that way that got them into it in the first place, so that means that we don’t need a government to prevent cartels. Though it is in the self-interest of all of the people in the cartel together to keep the cartel going, it it is the individual self-interest of each person to do things that will be the downfall of the cartel.
Now what I find ironic about this is that it is a perfect example of market failure, if you use the definition of David Friedman, which is the one that Neoclassical was using in that thread. We don’t need to fear market failure, because it apparently is one of the things that we have to invoke just to be able to respond to one of the most common objections to getting rid of goverment, and establishing an unhampered market, which is that cartels would take over if we were to not have a government to put them down.
Market failure is market success. Maybe we should think about not using the term “market failure”, because it is an incredibly misleading and ridiculous way to refer to this sort of thing.