Which do you find yourself supporting/utilizing? Or do they both add to the Austrian Economics. Does one method have distinct advantages over the other?
I really cannot claim either approach as my own, my background is from an empirical/positivist approach (which Austrian rarely, if ever utilize). The empirical method works well in other Disciplines, but does not provide direct insights to Austrian Economics. I am weighing the benefits and deficinecies of the Kantian and Aristotleian approaches.
That covers the basics and the essentials. I think before discussing the topic it would be helpful to give it a read. Broadly speaking, Aristotelianism is an “empirical” method as it is, but it also incorporates incontestable truths; both Aristotelianism and Kantian rationalism allow for the hypothetico-deductive method - what they rebuke is positivism and its many errors (e.g. methodological monism, synthetic-analytic dichotomy.) Personally, I am a neo-Aristotelian. The main fault Aristotelians find with Kantianism is that it cannot account for concept-formation, and that it does not place enough stress on the fact that concept-formation can go wrong in addition to deduction; that, and the fact that it leaves the backdoor open to subjectivism.
Interesting, I haven’t read much philosophy lately, but I agree with your Neo-Aristotelian view, specifically with the point about the subjectivist backdoor. I find it funny that I attempted to read Kant when I was in grade school, but couldn’t understand a word of what he was saying (my youth aside).
As for positivism (I suppose this also means logical positivism), I haven’t read much into it other than what Ayer (and others) have implied regarding Ignosticism.
Fascinating read. It seems as though the author sides with Aristotleian rationalism. However, he sites an intersting facet of various false dichatomies. I do not entirely agree with that they are all false, yet, I can see the point he is trying to make in that they are not necessarily dichatomies.
The debate reminds me of the age old question, if a tree falls down in the a forest, and no one is around, does it make a sound?
BTW, when you said “it leaves the backdoor open to subjectivism,” did you mean that Aristotelians leave it open, or Kantians leave it open.