I posted Keynes article, The Objective of International Price Stability, on my blog. There are more in depth articles, but I figure it would be wise to understand what exactly Keynes means. There are a lot of points in the article which I don’t understand, because I don’t know the terminology. Any help would be great, thanks.
On another view, however, each national price-level is primarily determined by the relation of the national wage-level to the national efficiency; or, more generally, by the relation of money-costs to efficiency in terms of the national unit of currency. And if price-levels are determined by money-costs, it follows that whilst an ” appropriate ” quantity of money is a necessary condition of stable prices, it is not a sufficient condition. For prices can only be stabilised by first stabilising the relation of money-wages (and other costs) to efficiency.
What does he mean by national wage-level to national efficiency? Is he referring to some macroeconomic (when it should be a microeconomic concept) concept to the relationship between real wage rates and marginal revenue? He continues:
The second (and more modern) complaint against the gold standard is, therefore, that it attempts to confine the natural tendency of wages to rise beyond the limits set by the volume of money, but can only do so by the weapon of deliberately creating unemployment.
Is he condoning increases of nominal wage rates through inflation? It seems that he understands that to increase nominal wage rates artificially means to create unemployment, but I don’t understand how he sees merit through wage increases through inflation.
The primary aim of an international currency scheme should be, therefore, to prevent not only those evils which result from a chronic shortage of international money due to the draining of gold into creditor countries but also those which follow from countries failing to maintain stability of domestic efficiency-costs and moving out of step with one another in their national wage-policies without having at their disposal any means of orderly adjustment. And if orderly adjustment is allowed, that is another way of saying that countries may be allowed by the scheme, which is not the case with the gold standard, to pursue, if they choose, different wage policies and, therefore, different price policies
This is really ambigious, and I’m not sure I understand what he’s trying to say. He says that an international currency could basically provide liquidity to those countries where gold is leaving from, and those which have high artificial wage rates not matched by inflation (which means that he understands that high real wage rates can “set off” the business cycle [see: Vedder & Gallaway’s Out of Work]). What does he mean by orderly adjustment? Inflation?
Thanks.