The keynsians at least use the fallacious ‘paradox of thrift’ to attempt to explain their theories, but in all my readings I’ve never heard an attempt to justify monetarism on logical grounds.
They seem to be OK with the idea of prices adjusting to an increase in the demand for money. Friedman actually adovated at one point pegging the nominal interest rate at zero. Which would imply falling prices. So it doesn’t really seem that deflation per say is their bugaboo, but rather just a fall in the money supply.
Did friedman, or any other monetarist ever attempt to explain this logically, or was it just based on pure statistical correlation?
Thanks,
Chris