I tend to lean toward D, personally. Though I should note that I do make a distinction between a fetus and an embryo, or the embryonic stage of development which is approximately 8-11 weeks immediately following conception, prior to the embryo becoming a fetus.
I take this position because I do believe the fetus inherits natural rights by virtue of being human. It seems to me that a human is defined by appearance, biology and cognizance–all traits which fetuses seem to have as well. How are they different in appearance from a human baby? They’re simply smaller. They have a distinguishable head, housing a brain; body, housing a heart; fingers and toes; eyes and ears, etc. How are they biologically much different? They have developed the same biological systems as humans. How are they any less cognizant than a human baby? They act, they move, they respond to stimuli.
So, humanity is established, IMO, along with the natural rights which accompany the fetus by virtue of being human.
But what about the mother? She has natural rights too, and it is her body, after all.
The mother has engaged in a specific number of sequential actions to have produced a fetus. For one, the mother had to have engaged in sexual intercourse to conceive–most likely unprotected. Various forms of birth control are readily available, but it is true they are not necessarily 100% effective. Nevertheless, this is common knowledge–it is a given that BC is not 100% effective. Next, the mother has either taken action to become aware of conception by way of doctor and/or home pregnancy test which can typically be determined very immediately after conception, now a days. If she has not taken action to become aware, and has instead ignored the possibility, this is still action. Next, the mother would have to allow for the embryo to develop over a period of 8-11 weeks as mentioned before in order for the embryo to become a fetus. This is also action–and perhaps one of the more important actions the mother takes as it relates to my position on this issue. By allowing the embryo to become a fetus–by not aborting prior to conversion to the fetus stage–the mother, it seems, has entered into a contract with the fetus. The mother has effectively accepted the fetus within her by way of her own actions–invited it even–to stay and “make itself at home” for as long as it requires until it is ready to leave. Since there can be no direct communication between mother and fetus, this contract cannot be altered any further after the fetus has accepted the same contract. If the mother did not want to enter into this contract; it seems to me she would have otherwise taken action to disengage the contract–either by way of abortion in the embryonic stage, or through proper use of contraception prior to (or even after) the act of conception.
As an aside, the father is also disregarded from the other three arguments. If it is argued the mother has ownership of the fetus, why is it not also argued that the father has partial ownership of the fetus? His labor and part of his property was required to create the fetus, after all.
To further illustrate my main point about the contract, I’ll refer to an analogy:
Lets say I invite someone into my home and tell them they are free to whatever is inside while they remain inside my home, for as long as they’d like.
Lets say this person accepts my offer, enters my home, and makes himself/herself at home–just as I have suggested they do. They eat my food, sleep under my roof and drink my water–all things which I have given them permission to do.
Eight to eleven weeks of this goes on, and then one morning I wake up, decide that this person is violating my property rights by being in my home, take a shotgun and pump two shells into the person’s chest as they’re sleeping in my living room without so much as a word. They’re now dead in a bloody mess.
This is essentially what aborting a fetus amounts to–absent of any direct and immediate danger to the mother, and perhaps also in cases of rape. The mother violates the agreed-upon contract, just as I did in the above analogy, at the expense of an innocent life. The mother has initiated aggression, just as I did in the above analogy, and is thus acting immorally.
Some would argue it is the fetus who initiates aggression, but I find this to be an absurd argument. The fetus did not choose to be conceived in any particular mother, or womb. The fetus does require a womb, however, and accepted the womb the mother offered to it upon entering into the contract between them. There is no initiation of aggression on behalf of the fetus, unless, again, the fetus poses a direct threat to the life of the mother.
To address the opposing argument of: The fetus is a guest in the mother’s property, therefore the mother has the right to eject the fetus whenever she wishes. I would suggest this is also absurd, because then this would mean that say… a two year old is subject to the same disposal at the whim of the mother, simply because the two year old lives in the mothers home.
I realize this is an unpopular stance to take for a libertarian, but I’ve yet to hear any arguments or reasoning to convince me that this is not an acceptable, reasonable, logical or moral position. This position, as well, also allows for a bit of compromise. Eight to eleven weeks the mother has to decide if she wants to retain the baby, or be rid of it without acting immorally.