In the past two or three months I have been reading Austrian economics as a past time. My latest book in “America’s Great Depression”, buy Murray Rothbard. While reading his first chapter, I was greatly confused about how he talked concerning the Supply and Demand of money. (If someone could provide a detailed explanation of the “Demand” for money, I will be greatly appreciated.
Anyways, on page 7 (2000 ed), he speaks “The demand for money is, in the final analysis, the willingness of people to hold cash balances, and this can be expressed as eagerness to acquire money in exchange, and as eagerness to retain money in cash balance…Demand for money will tend to be lower when the purchasing power of the money-unit is higher, for then each dollar is more effective in cash balance.”
In what has government done with our money (45) he says
"Now suppose, for whatever reason, perhaps growing apprehensively, people’s demand for cash balances increase…with people valuing cash balances more highly, the demand for money increases, and prices fall. "
I understand that an increase/decrease in the supply of money is simply the stock, but the demand has me confused. Either I am misunderstanding something, or Rothbard is contradicting himself in saying demand for cash balances creates lower prices, and a lower demand for money exists in low prices? Is a demand for cash balances and a demand for money the same thing? I’m terribly perplexed by Rothbard’s quotes, and the overall money demand thing. An explanation/graphs would be extremely appreciated.
Finally on page 27 of Great Depression, Rothbard says
“Professor Mises, while recognizing the superiror economic merits of 100 percent gold money to free banking, prefers the latter because 100 percent reserves would conceded to the government control over banking, and government could easily change these requirements to conform its inflationalist bias”.
However, I read somewhere in Money, Bank Credit, and Economic Cycles, that Mises considered free banking “second best”. Which is it? Did Mises honestly not support 100% reserves because he thought that government control over property rights was too much?
I’m a little worried about these contradictions (if they really are, or my mind is just screwing with me). Any help would be grealty appreciated. Thanks alot.