Often in my various online discussions, someone will bring up the point that many current claims on land were derived from past warfare, theft, etc, and therefore illegitimate. I’d like to hear some of your thoughts on this.
To me, there has to be some kind of cut off point. For example, if, two hundred years ago, someone forced someone else off of thier land and claimed it illegitimately. Then, through various later voluntary trades, I came to own it. Does the great-great-great-great-grandchild of the original owner who was agressed against have any claim to the land or property?
Saying that they do has some problematic implications. One is that we have to infer that all the person’s ancestors between the original victim and the living ones would have decided to pass on the property to thier children rather than do something else with it. This is unknowable, and probably has no evidence to it as the interm ancestors would not have made any contracts (e.g. wills) that stipulated that the property should be passed on to thier children. That inheritance given to biological children is generally a custom, but is not a logical certainty.
Now if you had a situation where a dead ancestor had his property stolen, and left a will that said “This property, if recovered should be passed onto my grandson”, then there may be a case. However, lacking such documentation, I have to assume that the use-rights the original, legitimate owner had expired with them, the property reverted to unowned status, and was re-homesteaded by someone down the line, establishing a current, legitimate, ownership.
This obviously has implications for situations like the agression against Native Americans in the 18th and 19th century, and in fact most contested lands at all. Some will posit that all land and property ownership in inherently based in violence, but this begs the question of whether “the son is guilty for the sins of the father”?
Thoughts?