Hi all,
I have started reading human action and I have come across what I believe to be an example which contradicts the apodictic certainty of downward sloping demand curves and I would appreciate some feedback as to whether my reasoning is correct or faulty.
First of all, through Praxeology we understand that acting humans allocate resources in their possession to the use which allieviates the greatest degree of unease. This use-order gives rise to decreasing marginal productivity in successive homogeneous goods. So far so good.
But what happens if the homogeneous good in question actually has an increasing marginal effect on the diminuition of easiness. Doesn’t the subjective value (belief in the actual removal of uneasiness) also increase in this case? And since the subjective value increases, so should the demand curve.
Let me give a specific example of what I am talking about. Say for instance, that I wanted to build a bomb and understood that Uranium 235 could be used for this purpose. With less than 50kg of Uranium 235 I cannot use it as a bomb, but only for other uses I value less urgently. So from 0-49kg I have a downward sloping demand curve. But at the 50th kg, my demand curve spikes upwards. I can now build a bomb, and I would be willing to part with more resources to acquire this extra 1kg than I would for the 49th kg that preceeded it. My demand curve is now upward sloping at 50kg.
Of course, the reader will notice that the use(s) of the Uranium has changed between the time I owned 49kg and the time I owned 50kg. But regardless of this change of use, the fact that for the homogeneous good in question I now value successive goods greater than previous goods violates the Praxeological deduction of a downward sloping demand curve…or at least it violates my current understanding of it.
Please help me resolve this incongruency. All the best,
Gerard