Praxeology and Linguistics

You said that a noun exists, but an adjective describes things. Well, I could describe you by calling you an idiot. So how is your definition useful at all?

Don’t underthink things. (Do you now see how useless it is to say things like that?)

By the way, if you read my long post, you would know where your ad hoc, commonsense definitions are coming from.

You said that a noun exists, but an adjective describes things. Well, I could describe you by calling you an idiot. So how is your definition useful at all?

fBecuase you are not so much describing me, as placing me in the state of that description, thereby it becomes a noun.

Idiot = noun. To describe me as idiotic is entirely different than to place me in the state of idiocy.

An apple is delicous, an apple is red = descriptive

An apple is a plant = placing it in a state, noun

It is based off the language itself, purple isnt an adjective becuase it is a descriptive term. It is only an adjective when used to describe something. Purple is awesome; purple is no longer an adjective there, it is a noun (the state of being purple)

words only exist in context. which is why I cant say “colorless green ideas sleep furiously” or “the bite dog man the” or “jump purple thirteen apple she pow”

Uh, yeah, okay . . .

you’re welcome :stuck_out_tongue:

It was sarcasm, if you didn’t catch that.

yes, yes it was…

(as was mine, just in case you didnt catch that either)

Well, try reading my long post from earlier, and then get back to me.

I am sorry. These things have been described quite reasonably to first graders. If you think you have a new way of describing language that is fine. But until you get it published in the Journal of Linguistics, or some other enterprise.. you’re really just some guy on the internet who thinks he knows better than an entire field of study.

No offense, cuz I did read it. But you really could just sum it up with;

noun = thing

adjective = description

a word can be either of these things depending on its context, tho usually, in the english language, we create ways to just change the word slightly to show its intent;

idiot = noun

idiocy = verb

idiotic = adjective

What a joke. Don’t expect me to take your posts seriously in the future.

Haha. I never did in the first place. Which says a lot really…

Ludwig von Mises said in Human Action that the method of praxeology is using imaginary constructions:

If I am correct that the method of studying markets should be the same as the method of studying language, and he is correct that the method of studying markets is using imaginary constructions, what is the method of studying language? Well, it apparently is imaginary constructions. So what are imaginary constructions that we should use in studying language? Did I use any in my division into nouns and adjectives? Yeah, I built the simplest language possible, which was just any combination of objects and relations, abstracted away from the specific objects and relations except for the one that I was talking about, which was intersection, and then showed how to make just one isolated change to that, adding the division into nouns and adjectives.

I thought after I wrote that post of the fact that Ludwig von Mises in Human Action said that the method of praxeology is using imaginary constructions, so I wanted to figure out what the imaginary constructions in studying language are. Well, I saw it right away in the post that I wrote for you in which I defined the division into nouns and adjectives. We need to build simplified languages isolating the things that we are talking about, and that way we can describe language. Just like the evenly rotating economy is an imaginary construction in studying markets, the simplified language that I used is an imaginary construction in studying language.

The method of studying natural languages at least in the praxeological tradition should be building simplified languages to isolate the distinctions that we find in natural languages.

I was hoping to start more simply (simple but deep). For example, if “seven” is a noun…

…is this a noun?

From? the perspective of human action, I as an individual use words to better my state of affairs. I utter “seven” on the phone with Suzy to communicate my intention to meet her at 7pm tomorrow, because I believe the state of affairs where Suzy knows of my intentions to meet her at that time is more satisfactory to me (because we can meet without confusion, etc.).

But before I uttered “seven” I had a much more detailed thought in my mind that I wanted to convey, namely my intention to meet Suzy at seven. In the context, I judged that only that one word was necessary for her to guess my intent. That one word crossed the inferential gap. If there were even more context - say, I always meet Suzy at 7pm - I could have simply said nothing. No words would be needed.

Why do we both know what “seven” means? Because, one way or another, we both figured out long ago that there is a convention most people in this area follow, and that is that they indicate the concept of 7 by uttering the word “seven.” Just like they indicate that something is acceptable by making the “thumbs up” gesture, or indicate “bird” by another hand gesture, or even indicate the concept of 7 by raising seven fingers.

OK, so what are words? They are communication devices for filling in what cannot be reliably guessed from context.

Sorry, brother. The definition was simple, but the groundwork took a bit of time.

Of course not. Didn’t you read my post? The distinction is just a sort of syntactical convenience.

Good change. I was worried for a minute.

Aren’t you trying to debunk modern linguistics? That means answering John Ess or someone else’s expositions of Chomsky/Pinker/etc. Ess hasn’t weighed in yet. This question and the one in the OP are mainly for him or another supporter of linguistics.

Well, isn’t the positive theory also important? Aren’t examples important?

(Maybe positive theory is important, but if all of what you’re attacking* is really pure nonsense, a negative deconstruction might be all you need. Just like I don’t think we need a positive theory of objective ethics, just an explanation for why it is meaningless.)

The questions aim to poke holes in mainstream linguistics, not in your conception.

*What elements of mainstream linguistics do you take the most exception to?

Well, I showed in my long post that one of the most common definitions is just a fuzzy offshoot of the “praxeological” distinction that I made, which I think poked a pretty good hole in it.

Well I just feel like we don’t have the mainstream position represented here. I don’t know enough about it, so whatever Chomsky/Pinker quotes I dig up might be dismissed as out of context or not accepted by the mainstream anymore. I don’t want to be accused of strawmanning. I need a real argument from a real linguist or someone who knows the material decently well. I have my own very detailed account of what language is and its relation to thought, but I haven’t posted it here because I am awaiting something to disagree (or agree) with in the “official” mainstream.