You may not wish public police protection, but if they come into your home and take your stuff, that is stealing.
Likewise, you may not like the centralization of money in the hands of government, but when they use that power to dilute the value, that is indeed stealing.
Either a compound or sub-crime of the original injustice.
Except that printing fiat money is not the same thing as producing more apples, gold or any other commodity. It’s true that printing something on a piece of paper is not a crime. However, the system based on printing money is a fraud. Okay, it’s not ‘stealing’, it’s just fraud, which is more classy…
Your analogy is of policemen taking things. When the government prints money, it doesn’t take away whatever worthless paper you already have. Forcing you to trade for paper money is what’s stealing.
Friend, How is in not stealing? When kings would collect taxes in Gold they would debase them by taking gold from the coins, and mixing the rest with lesser metals. Inflating the economy. Counterfiting.“Fractional” gold coins were passing as pure gold coins. Fast forward to when gold certs came into play. When you print more paper (Note that certs are contracts. a promise for what the free market chose as money; Regression Theorem-Mises) than there is redeemable money, and that paper is acting as genuine gols certs within the economy, you are stealing. AKA Fractional Reserve banking. It is communicating to the the free market that there is more capital within the economy than there is. Sound fimiliar? That disrupts intertemporal market coordination (Hayek). Unilarterally shifting consumer time preferences. Causing malinvestments. Misallocation of money. Yes, in one sence a printing press cam creat more “paper”, but cannot create wealth. Production brings forth goods which is our real measure of wealth. Money is just a facilitator to attaining these goods (Mises) (also Im not forgetting that money is a good itself-though not a consumption or production good). But printing more money beyond the pool of goods brought about by actual savings accompanied with real production brings about the booms. Think of the time lags that Mises talks about. The new money is spent by its first holders, they get to aquire goods and services at todays prices. That is only possible by creating new money. This drives up prices.Those who get it last pay a higher premium on goods and services.
Rothbard wrote: What has government done to our money. A smash hit. Its a good read.
Friend, How is in not stealing? When kings would collect taxes in Gold they would debase them by taking gold from the coins, and mixing the rest with lesser metals. Inflating the economy. Counterfiting.“Fractional” gold coins were passing as pure gold coins. Fast forward to when gold certs came into play. When you print more paper (Note that certs are contracts. a promise for what the free market chose as money; Regression Theorem-Mises) than there is redeemable money, and that paper is acting as genuine gols certs within the economy, you are stealing. AKA Fractional Reserve banking. It is communicating to the the free market that there is more capital within the economy than there is. Sound fimiliar? That disrupts intertemporal market coordination (Hayek). Unilarterally shifting consumer time preferences. Causing malinvestments. Misallocation of money. Yes, in one sence a printing press cam creat more “paper”, but cannot create wealth. Production brings forth goods which is our real measure of wealth. Money is just a facilitator to attaining these goods (Mises) (also Im not forgetting that money is a good itself-though not a consumption or production good). But printing more money beyond the pool of goods brought about by actual savings accompanied with real production brings about the booms. Think of the time lags that Mises talks about. The new money is spent by its first holders, they get to aquire goods and services at todays prices. That is only possible by creating new money. This drives up prices.Those who get it last pay a higher premium on goods and services.
Rothbard wrote: What has government done to our money. A smash hit. Its a good read.
The difference is that fiat money does not contain any intrinsic value. If you double the supply of houses, the increase of the standard of living increases in proportion to the decrease in the value of any one person’s house. However, when you double the supply of fiat money, there is no increase of the standard of living, but the decrease of the value of any one person’s money is decreased.
Therefore, if you are able to afford 10 units of value, and the value of your house decreases by 1 unit of value, you can now afford 11 units of value. This effect is not immediate, but nothing has been stolen from you. In the case of the printing of money, that 1 unit of value is not returned to you.
There is a more fundamental problem here with your teachers’ fallacious assertion, and it has to do with the purpose of the market (or the economy, for that matter).
Is the purpose of the market to satisfy the demand of the consumer, or is its purpose something else? If it is to satisfy consumer demand, then why do we need any incentive to buy or to abstain? Our behavior, absent of any coercive interference, reflects our exact (present) personal desires and goals. Why does your teacher assert that the individual must require some external “incentive” to realize what he really wants?
In fact, the opposite is always true. Any deviation from what the individual would have done, absent of any coercive interference (such as inflation), means his “wants” are less satisfied. You cannot increase the satisfaction of the individual by not allowing him to reach that satisfaction.
Your teacher, like all Keynesians, does not understand markets.